Page 1 of 27
NURS 265 ONCOLOGY EXAM
COMPLETE (71)
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
WITH DETAILED EXPLANATIONS
CURRENT TESTING
Section 1: Cancer Pathophysiology & Prevention (Questions 1–50)
1. What is the primary difference between a benign and a malignant neoplasm?
D
A) Benign tumors are always encapsulated; malignant tumors are never encapsulated
O
B) Benign tumors do not metastasize; malignant tumors have metastatic potential
C) Benign tumors grow faster than malignant tumors
N
D) Benign tumors occur only in children; malignant tumors occur only in adults
O
T
✅ Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The defining difference between benign and malignant tumors is metastatic potential.
C
Benign tumors are typically encapsulated, grow by expansion (not invasion), do not metastasize,
O
and rarely recur after complete resection. Malignant tumors invade surrounding tissues, can
metastasize via blood or lymph, and frequently recur.
PY
low growth fraction
C) The growth fraction is the proportion of cells in a tumor that are actively dividing (cycling)
D) Tumors with a low growth fraction are more sensitive to cell-cycle-specific chemotherapy
✅ Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The growth fraction is the percentage of cells within a tumor that are actively
, Page 2 of 27
progressing through the cell cycle (in the S, G2, or M phase). High-growth-fraction tumors
(e.g., acute leukemias) are more sensitive to cell-cycle-specific drugs. Low-growth-fraction
tumors (e.g., solid tumors such as colon cancer) are less sensitive unless the drug is non-phase-
specific.
3. A patient is newly diagnosed with leukemia. The nurse knows that staging of this disease is
based on which parameter?
A) Tumor size and lymph node involvement
B) TNM (tumor, nodes, metastasis) classification
C) Degree of cellular differentiation (grade)
D) Cell morphology and cytogenetics
D
✅ Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Leukemias (and lymphomas) are staged using the Ann Arbor or WHO classification
O
systems based on histology, cytogenetics, flow cytometry, and molecular markers, not the TNM
system (which is used for solid tumors). Staging for leukemia relies on cell morphology,
N
cytogenetic findings, and the extent of bone marrow involvement.
O
T
C
4. The nurse is teaching a patient about cancer prevention. Which statement best describes the role
O
of a tumor suppressor gene?
PY
A) It accelerates cell division by promoting oncogene activity
B) It produces proteins that inhibit cell cycle progression, allowing DNA repair before division
C) It activates telomerase to extend cellular life span
D) It is responsible for angiogenesis in solid tumors
✅ Correct Answer: B
*Rationale: Tumor suppressor genes (e.g., p53, Rb, BRCA1/2) produce proteins that regulate
cell growth by inhibiting progression through the cell cycle. When these genes are inactivated
(by mutation), cells can divide uncontrollably. Oncogenes accelerate cell division.*
5. A 58-year-old woman with a BRCA1 mutation has undergone prophylactic bilateral salpingo-
oophorectomy. The nurse explains that this surgery significantly reduces the risk of which primary
cancers?
A) Breast cancer only
, Page 3 of 27
B) Ovarian and breast cancer
C) Colon and endometrial cancer
D) Lung and pancreatic cancer
✅ Correct Answer: B
*Rationale: BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations are associated with increased risk of breast and
ovarian cancer. Prophylactic salpingo-oophorectomy (removal of fallopian tubes and ovaries)
reduces the risk of ovarian/fallopian tube cancer and also reduces breast cancer risk (by
eliminating a source of estrogen) in premenopausal women.*
6. A nurse is reviewing risk factors for lung cancer. Which patient has the highest risk?
A) A 60-year-old man who smoked one pack per day for 20 years and quit 15 years ago B) A
D
55-year-old woman who smoked two packs per day for 30 years and currently smokes
O
C) A 70-year-old nonsmoker with exposure to second-hand smoke at home
D) A 40-year-old man who smokes a pipe twice per week
N
✅ Correct Answer: B
O
*Rationale: The strongest risk factor for lung cancer is tobacco smoking. Risk correlates with
T
pack-years smoked (2 packs/day × 30 years = 60 pack-years). Current smoking carries higher
risk than former smoking. Pipe and cigar smoking also increase risk but to a lesser degree than
C
cigarette smoking.*
O
PY
7. The nurse teaches a patient that the most common cancer in men in the United States (excluding
non-melanoma skin cancer) is:
A) Lung cancer
B) Colorectal cancer
C) Prostate cancer
D) Bladder cancer
✅ Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Prostate cancer is the most common non-skin cancer in American men, followed by
lung and colorectal cancers. Lung cancer remains the leading cause of cancer death in men.
8. The Papanicolaou (Pap) test screening has dramatically reduced the incidence of which cancer?
A) Endometrial cancer
NURS 265 ONCOLOGY EXAM
COMPLETE (71)
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
WITH DETAILED EXPLANATIONS
CURRENT TESTING
Section 1: Cancer Pathophysiology & Prevention (Questions 1–50)
1. What is the primary difference between a benign and a malignant neoplasm?
D
A) Benign tumors are always encapsulated; malignant tumors are never encapsulated
O
B) Benign tumors do not metastasize; malignant tumors have metastatic potential
C) Benign tumors grow faster than malignant tumors
N
D) Benign tumors occur only in children; malignant tumors occur only in adults
O
T
✅ Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The defining difference between benign and malignant tumors is metastatic potential.
C
Benign tumors are typically encapsulated, grow by expansion (not invasion), do not metastasize,
O
and rarely recur after complete resection. Malignant tumors invade surrounding tissues, can
metastasize via blood or lymph, and frequently recur.
PY
low growth fraction
C) The growth fraction is the proportion of cells in a tumor that are actively dividing (cycling)
D) Tumors with a low growth fraction are more sensitive to cell-cycle-specific chemotherapy
✅ Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The growth fraction is the percentage of cells within a tumor that are actively
, Page 2 of 27
progressing through the cell cycle (in the S, G2, or M phase). High-growth-fraction tumors
(e.g., acute leukemias) are more sensitive to cell-cycle-specific drugs. Low-growth-fraction
tumors (e.g., solid tumors such as colon cancer) are less sensitive unless the drug is non-phase-
specific.
3. A patient is newly diagnosed with leukemia. The nurse knows that staging of this disease is
based on which parameter?
A) Tumor size and lymph node involvement
B) TNM (tumor, nodes, metastasis) classification
C) Degree of cellular differentiation (grade)
D) Cell morphology and cytogenetics
D
✅ Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Leukemias (and lymphomas) are staged using the Ann Arbor or WHO classification
O
systems based on histology, cytogenetics, flow cytometry, and molecular markers, not the TNM
system (which is used for solid tumors). Staging for leukemia relies on cell morphology,
N
cytogenetic findings, and the extent of bone marrow involvement.
O
T
C
4. The nurse is teaching a patient about cancer prevention. Which statement best describes the role
O
of a tumor suppressor gene?
PY
A) It accelerates cell division by promoting oncogene activity
B) It produces proteins that inhibit cell cycle progression, allowing DNA repair before division
C) It activates telomerase to extend cellular life span
D) It is responsible for angiogenesis in solid tumors
✅ Correct Answer: B
*Rationale: Tumor suppressor genes (e.g., p53, Rb, BRCA1/2) produce proteins that regulate
cell growth by inhibiting progression through the cell cycle. When these genes are inactivated
(by mutation), cells can divide uncontrollably. Oncogenes accelerate cell division.*
5. A 58-year-old woman with a BRCA1 mutation has undergone prophylactic bilateral salpingo-
oophorectomy. The nurse explains that this surgery significantly reduces the risk of which primary
cancers?
A) Breast cancer only
, Page 3 of 27
B) Ovarian and breast cancer
C) Colon and endometrial cancer
D) Lung and pancreatic cancer
✅ Correct Answer: B
*Rationale: BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations are associated with increased risk of breast and
ovarian cancer. Prophylactic salpingo-oophorectomy (removal of fallopian tubes and ovaries)
reduces the risk of ovarian/fallopian tube cancer and also reduces breast cancer risk (by
eliminating a source of estrogen) in premenopausal women.*
6. A nurse is reviewing risk factors for lung cancer. Which patient has the highest risk?
A) A 60-year-old man who smoked one pack per day for 20 years and quit 15 years ago B) A
D
55-year-old woman who smoked two packs per day for 30 years and currently smokes
O
C) A 70-year-old nonsmoker with exposure to second-hand smoke at home
D) A 40-year-old man who smokes a pipe twice per week
N
✅ Correct Answer: B
O
*Rationale: The strongest risk factor for lung cancer is tobacco smoking. Risk correlates with
T
pack-years smoked (2 packs/day × 30 years = 60 pack-years). Current smoking carries higher
risk than former smoking. Pipe and cigar smoking also increase risk but to a lesser degree than
C
cigarette smoking.*
O
PY
7. The nurse teaches a patient that the most common cancer in men in the United States (excluding
non-melanoma skin cancer) is:
A) Lung cancer
B) Colorectal cancer
C) Prostate cancer
D) Bladder cancer
✅ Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Prostate cancer is the most common non-skin cancer in American men, followed by
lung and colorectal cancers. Lung cancer remains the leading cause of cancer death in men.
8. The Papanicolaou (Pap) test screening has dramatically reduced the incidence of which cancer?
A) Endometrial cancer
