HESI Entrance Exam
2026-2027
150 Questions
100% VERIFIED
Introduction
The HESI Entrance Exam measures the academic readiness of candidates seeking admission to nursing
and allied health programs, and it does so by sampling the foundational knowledge on which every
subsequent health sciences course depends. Built on the Elsevier HESI A2 Admission Assessment
blueprint, the assessment spans Anatomy and Physiology, Biology, Chemistry, Mathematics, Reading
Comprehension, Vocabulary and General Knowledge, Grammar, Physics, and Learning Styles and
Personality Profile. Together these domains test whether a candidate can interpret scientific content,
manipulate the numeric and unit-based reasoning that dosage calculation and laboratory
interpretation demand, extract meaning from dense expository text, and communicate with the
grammatical precision that clinical documentation requires. The mathematics and science sections
establish quantitative fluency, the language sections establish the comprehension and writing control
needed for evidence review and charting, and the learning profile supports the self-directed study
execution that accelerated curricula assume. Strong performance is used by admissions committees as
a predictor of first-attempt success on licensure examinations and of persistence through the program,
making mastery of this material a decisive step in entry to the nursing profession and in the
development of sound professional judgment.
Question 1. When core body temperature rises, the body responds by sweating and dilating cutaneous
blood vessels until temperature returns to the set point. This regulatory process is an example of:
A) Positive feedback
B) Cellular adaptation
C) Nonspecific immune response
D) Negative feedback
Correct Answer: D) Negative feedback
Rationale: Negative feedback reverses a deviation from a set point and restores homeostasis, which is
exactly what sweating and vasodilation accomplish. Positive feedback amplifies a change rather than
reversing it, immune responses target pathogens rather than temperature, and cellular adaptation
describes structural change over time.
Question 2. The wrist is described as distal to the elbow. In anatomical terminology, distal means:
A) Toward the front surface of the body
B) Closer to the point of attachment of a limb to the trunk
C) Closer to the midline of the body
D) Farther from the point of attachment of a limb to the trunk
Correct Answer: D) Farther from the point of attachment of a limb to the trunk
,Rationale: Distal refers to a position farther from where a limb attaches to the trunk, so the wrist is
distal to the elbow. Medial describes closeness to the midline, anterior describes the front surface, and
proximal is the opposite of distal.
Question 3. Which anatomical plane divides the body into equal right and left halves?
A) Transverse plane
B) Oblique plane
C) Midsagittal plane
D) Frontal plane
Correct Answer: C) Midsagittal plane
Rationale: The midsagittal, or median, plane runs vertically through the midline and produces mirror-
image halves. The frontal plane divides anterior from posterior, the transverse plane divides superior
from inferior, and an oblique plane cuts at an angle and does not produce equal halves.
Question 4. The patella is classified as which type of bone?
A) Sesamoid bone
B) Long bone
C) Flat bone
D) Irregular bone
Correct Answer: A) Sesamoid bone
Rationale: Sesamoid bones develop within tendons that cross a joint, and the patella embedded in the
quadriceps tendon is the classic example. Long bones are longer than they are wide, flat bones are thin
and often curved, and irregular bones such as vertebrae have complex shapes.
Question 5. The glenohumeral joint of the shoulder permits movement in multiple axes. It is classified
as a:
A) Hinge synovial joint
B) Ball-and-socket synovial joint
C) Suture joint
D) Pivot synovial joint
Correct Answer: B) Ball-and-socket synovial joint
Rationale: A rounded head fitting into a cup-like socket allows flexion, extension, abduction,
adduction, and rotation. Hinge joints such as the elbow allow motion in one plane, pivot joints allow
rotation around a single axis, and sutures are immovable fibrous joints of the skull.
Question 6. During skeletal muscle contraction, which structural unit shortens as actin filaments slide
over myosin?
A) The sarcoplasmic reticulum
B) The sarcomere
C) The motor end plate
D) The sarcolemma
Correct Answer: B) The sarcomere
,Rationale: The sarcomere is the contractile unit between two Z lines and shortens as thin filaments
slide past thick filaments. The sarcolemma is the muscle cell membrane, the sarcoplasmic reticulum
stores calcium, and the motor end plate is the neuromuscular junction region.
Question 7. Which ion must bind to troponin before actin binding sites become available for cross-
bridge formation?
A) Magnesium
B) Sodium
C) Calcium
D) Potassium
Correct Answer: C) Calcium
Rationale: Calcium released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum binds troponin, shifting tropomyosin
and exposing myosin binding sites on actin. Sodium and potassium generate action potentials along the
sarcolemma, and magnesium does not serve as the contraction trigger.
Question 8. Rapid impulse conduction along a myelinated axon occurs because the action potential
jumps between nodes of Ranvier. This mode of conduction is called:
A) Retrograde conduction
B) Saltatory conduction
C) Continuous conduction
D) Synaptic transmission
Correct Answer: B) Saltatory conduction
Rationale: Myelin insulates the axon and forces depolarization to occur only at the exposed nodes,
producing fast saltatory conduction. Continuous conduction describes slower unmyelinated fibers,
synaptic transmission occurs between neurons, and retrograde conduction refers to impulse direction
rather than speed.
Question 9. Which set of physiologic changes is produced by activation of the sympathetic division of
the autonomic nervous system?
A) Pupil constriction, decreased heart rate, and bronchoconstriction
B) Increased digestive secretion and bladder contraction
C) Pupil dilation, increased heart rate, and bronchodilation
D) Decreased blood glucose and increased salivation
Correct Answer: C) Pupil dilation, increased heart rate, and bronchodilation
Rationale: Sympathetic activation prepares the body for emergency action by dilating pupils,
accelerating the heart, and opening the airways. Parasympathetic activity produces the opposite
effects, including slowed heart rate, enhanced digestion, and bladder contraction.
Question 10. Which hormone lowers blood glucose, and where is it produced?
A) Cortisol, produced by the adrenal cortex
B) Glucagon, produced by alpha cells of the pancreatic islets
C) Insulin, produced by beta cells of the pancreatic islets
D) Growth hormone, produced by the anterior pituitary
, Correct Answer: C) Insulin, produced by beta cells of the pancreatic islets
Rationale: Beta cells of the islets of Langerhans secrete insulin, which drives glucose into cells and
lowers blood concentration. Glucagon, cortisol, and growth hormone all raise blood glucose and
therefore act in opposition to insulin.
Question 11. Antidiuretic hormone acts on the kidneys to increase water reabsorption. It is stored and
released from the:
A) Posterior pituitary gland
B) Adrenal medulla
C) Anterior pituitary gland
D) Parathyroid gland
Correct Answer: A) Posterior pituitary gland
Rationale: Antidiuretic hormone is synthesized in the hypothalamus and stored in the posterior
pituitary, which releases it into the circulation. The anterior pituitary secretes its own tropic
hormones, the adrenal medulla releases catecholamines, and the parathyroid glands regulate calcium.
Question 12. Which cardiac chamber pumps oxygenated blood into the systemic circulation?
A) Right ventricle
B) Right atrium
C) Left atrium
D) Left ventricle
Correct Answer: D) Left ventricle
Rationale: The left ventricle has the thickest myocardium and ejects blood through the aortic valve
into the aorta for systemic delivery. The right atrium receives systemic venous return, the right
ventricle pumps to the lungs, and the left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the pulmonary veins.
Question 13. Which statement about the pulmonary artery is correct?
A) It carries oxygenated blood from the left ventricle to the body
B) It carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium
C) It carries deoxygenated blood from the body into the right atrium
D) It carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs
Correct Answer: D) It carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs
Rationale: The pulmonary artery is the only artery carrying deoxygenated blood, transporting it from
the right ventricle to the pulmonary capillaries. Oxygenated blood returns through the pulmonary
veins, the aorta carries oxygenated blood systemically, and the venae cavae return systemic blood to
the right atrium.
Question 14. Which sequence correctly describes the initial stage of hemostasis after vascular injury?
A) Coagulation cascade completion followed by vascular spasm
B) Vascular spasm followed by platelet plug formation
C) Fibrinolysis followed by clot retraction
D) Clot retraction followed by platelet plug formation
Correct Answer: B) Vascular spasm followed by platelet plug formation
2026-2027
150 Questions
100% VERIFIED
Introduction
The HESI Entrance Exam measures the academic readiness of candidates seeking admission to nursing
and allied health programs, and it does so by sampling the foundational knowledge on which every
subsequent health sciences course depends. Built on the Elsevier HESI A2 Admission Assessment
blueprint, the assessment spans Anatomy and Physiology, Biology, Chemistry, Mathematics, Reading
Comprehension, Vocabulary and General Knowledge, Grammar, Physics, and Learning Styles and
Personality Profile. Together these domains test whether a candidate can interpret scientific content,
manipulate the numeric and unit-based reasoning that dosage calculation and laboratory
interpretation demand, extract meaning from dense expository text, and communicate with the
grammatical precision that clinical documentation requires. The mathematics and science sections
establish quantitative fluency, the language sections establish the comprehension and writing control
needed for evidence review and charting, and the learning profile supports the self-directed study
execution that accelerated curricula assume. Strong performance is used by admissions committees as
a predictor of first-attempt success on licensure examinations and of persistence through the program,
making mastery of this material a decisive step in entry to the nursing profession and in the
development of sound professional judgment.
Question 1. When core body temperature rises, the body responds by sweating and dilating cutaneous
blood vessels until temperature returns to the set point. This regulatory process is an example of:
A) Positive feedback
B) Cellular adaptation
C) Nonspecific immune response
D) Negative feedback
Correct Answer: D) Negative feedback
Rationale: Negative feedback reverses a deviation from a set point and restores homeostasis, which is
exactly what sweating and vasodilation accomplish. Positive feedback amplifies a change rather than
reversing it, immune responses target pathogens rather than temperature, and cellular adaptation
describes structural change over time.
Question 2. The wrist is described as distal to the elbow. In anatomical terminology, distal means:
A) Toward the front surface of the body
B) Closer to the point of attachment of a limb to the trunk
C) Closer to the midline of the body
D) Farther from the point of attachment of a limb to the trunk
Correct Answer: D) Farther from the point of attachment of a limb to the trunk
,Rationale: Distal refers to a position farther from where a limb attaches to the trunk, so the wrist is
distal to the elbow. Medial describes closeness to the midline, anterior describes the front surface, and
proximal is the opposite of distal.
Question 3. Which anatomical plane divides the body into equal right and left halves?
A) Transverse plane
B) Oblique plane
C) Midsagittal plane
D) Frontal plane
Correct Answer: C) Midsagittal plane
Rationale: The midsagittal, or median, plane runs vertically through the midline and produces mirror-
image halves. The frontal plane divides anterior from posterior, the transverse plane divides superior
from inferior, and an oblique plane cuts at an angle and does not produce equal halves.
Question 4. The patella is classified as which type of bone?
A) Sesamoid bone
B) Long bone
C) Flat bone
D) Irregular bone
Correct Answer: A) Sesamoid bone
Rationale: Sesamoid bones develop within tendons that cross a joint, and the patella embedded in the
quadriceps tendon is the classic example. Long bones are longer than they are wide, flat bones are thin
and often curved, and irregular bones such as vertebrae have complex shapes.
Question 5. The glenohumeral joint of the shoulder permits movement in multiple axes. It is classified
as a:
A) Hinge synovial joint
B) Ball-and-socket synovial joint
C) Suture joint
D) Pivot synovial joint
Correct Answer: B) Ball-and-socket synovial joint
Rationale: A rounded head fitting into a cup-like socket allows flexion, extension, abduction,
adduction, and rotation. Hinge joints such as the elbow allow motion in one plane, pivot joints allow
rotation around a single axis, and sutures are immovable fibrous joints of the skull.
Question 6. During skeletal muscle contraction, which structural unit shortens as actin filaments slide
over myosin?
A) The sarcoplasmic reticulum
B) The sarcomere
C) The motor end plate
D) The sarcolemma
Correct Answer: B) The sarcomere
,Rationale: The sarcomere is the contractile unit between two Z lines and shortens as thin filaments
slide past thick filaments. The sarcolemma is the muscle cell membrane, the sarcoplasmic reticulum
stores calcium, and the motor end plate is the neuromuscular junction region.
Question 7. Which ion must bind to troponin before actin binding sites become available for cross-
bridge formation?
A) Magnesium
B) Sodium
C) Calcium
D) Potassium
Correct Answer: C) Calcium
Rationale: Calcium released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum binds troponin, shifting tropomyosin
and exposing myosin binding sites on actin. Sodium and potassium generate action potentials along the
sarcolemma, and magnesium does not serve as the contraction trigger.
Question 8. Rapid impulse conduction along a myelinated axon occurs because the action potential
jumps between nodes of Ranvier. This mode of conduction is called:
A) Retrograde conduction
B) Saltatory conduction
C) Continuous conduction
D) Synaptic transmission
Correct Answer: B) Saltatory conduction
Rationale: Myelin insulates the axon and forces depolarization to occur only at the exposed nodes,
producing fast saltatory conduction. Continuous conduction describes slower unmyelinated fibers,
synaptic transmission occurs between neurons, and retrograde conduction refers to impulse direction
rather than speed.
Question 9. Which set of physiologic changes is produced by activation of the sympathetic division of
the autonomic nervous system?
A) Pupil constriction, decreased heart rate, and bronchoconstriction
B) Increased digestive secretion and bladder contraction
C) Pupil dilation, increased heart rate, and bronchodilation
D) Decreased blood glucose and increased salivation
Correct Answer: C) Pupil dilation, increased heart rate, and bronchodilation
Rationale: Sympathetic activation prepares the body for emergency action by dilating pupils,
accelerating the heart, and opening the airways. Parasympathetic activity produces the opposite
effects, including slowed heart rate, enhanced digestion, and bladder contraction.
Question 10. Which hormone lowers blood glucose, and where is it produced?
A) Cortisol, produced by the adrenal cortex
B) Glucagon, produced by alpha cells of the pancreatic islets
C) Insulin, produced by beta cells of the pancreatic islets
D) Growth hormone, produced by the anterior pituitary
, Correct Answer: C) Insulin, produced by beta cells of the pancreatic islets
Rationale: Beta cells of the islets of Langerhans secrete insulin, which drives glucose into cells and
lowers blood concentration. Glucagon, cortisol, and growth hormone all raise blood glucose and
therefore act in opposition to insulin.
Question 11. Antidiuretic hormone acts on the kidneys to increase water reabsorption. It is stored and
released from the:
A) Posterior pituitary gland
B) Adrenal medulla
C) Anterior pituitary gland
D) Parathyroid gland
Correct Answer: A) Posterior pituitary gland
Rationale: Antidiuretic hormone is synthesized in the hypothalamus and stored in the posterior
pituitary, which releases it into the circulation. The anterior pituitary secretes its own tropic
hormones, the adrenal medulla releases catecholamines, and the parathyroid glands regulate calcium.
Question 12. Which cardiac chamber pumps oxygenated blood into the systemic circulation?
A) Right ventricle
B) Right atrium
C) Left atrium
D) Left ventricle
Correct Answer: D) Left ventricle
Rationale: The left ventricle has the thickest myocardium and ejects blood through the aortic valve
into the aorta for systemic delivery. The right atrium receives systemic venous return, the right
ventricle pumps to the lungs, and the left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the pulmonary veins.
Question 13. Which statement about the pulmonary artery is correct?
A) It carries oxygenated blood from the left ventricle to the body
B) It carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium
C) It carries deoxygenated blood from the body into the right atrium
D) It carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs
Correct Answer: D) It carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs
Rationale: The pulmonary artery is the only artery carrying deoxygenated blood, transporting it from
the right ventricle to the pulmonary capillaries. Oxygenated blood returns through the pulmonary
veins, the aorta carries oxygenated blood systemically, and the venae cavae return systemic blood to
the right atrium.
Question 14. Which sequence correctly describes the initial stage of hemostasis after vascular injury?
A) Coagulation cascade completion followed by vascular spasm
B) Vascular spasm followed by platelet plug formation
C) Fibrinolysis followed by clot retraction
D) Clot retraction followed by platelet plug formation
Correct Answer: B) Vascular spasm followed by platelet plug formation
