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RN Pharmacology Competency Exam 2026 | RN-PHARMA-COMP | 100 Advanced Practice Questions & Answers with Detailed Rationales | Complete RN Exam Prep & Study Guide

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Prepare for the RN Pharmacology Competency Exam — Code: RN-PHARMA-COMP with this comprehensive 2026 advanced practice exam and study guide featuring 100 pharmacology questions with correct answers and detailed rationales. This resource reviews essential medication concepts for registered nurses, including pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, medication administration, dosage and calculation principles, adverse effects, contraindications, drug interactions, medication reconciliation, high-alert medications, safe administration practices, patient education, and monitoring therapeutic responses. Questions cover major medication classes and clinical applications, including cardiovascular, respiratory, endocrine, gastrointestinal, neurological, psychiatric, anti-infective, analgesic, anticoagulant, and emergency medications. Realistic clinical scenarios emphasize clinical judgment, medication safety, prioritization, recognition of adverse drug reactions, laboratory monitoring, and patient-specific considerations. Detailed rationales explain why each answer is correct and reinforce safe, evidence-informed medication practice. Key Features 100 advanced RN pharmacology competency questions Correct answers for every question Detailed rationales Pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics Medication administration Dosage calculation principles Drug interactions Adverse effects and adverse reactions Contraindications and precautions Medication reconciliation High-alert medications Cardiovascular medications Respiratory medications Endocrine medications Gastrointestinal medications Neurological medications Psychiatric medications Anti-infective medications Analgesics Anticoagulants Emergency medications Laboratory monitoring Patient education Medication safety Clinical judgment and prioritization Comprehensive 2026 exam preparation

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RN Pharmacology Competency Exam —
Code: RN-PHARMA-COMP | 100-
Question Advanced Practice Exam 2026
| Questions & Answers with Detailed
Rationales | Complete Exam Prep &
Study Guide


1. A patient with heart failure is receiving digoxin. The nurse notes an apical
pulse of 52/min, nausea, and yellow-green visual disturbances. Which
action is the priority?

A. Administer the scheduled dose with food
B. Hold digoxin and notify the provider
C. Administer potassium supplementation immediately
D. Reassess the apical pulse in 4 hours

Answer: Hold digoxin and notify the provider

Rationale: Bradycardia, gastrointestinal symptoms, and visual disturbances are
classic manifestations of digoxin toxicity. The medication should be withheld

,and the provider notified. Serum digoxin and electrolyte levels, particularly
potassium, should be evaluated.



2. A patient taking warfarin has an INR of 5.8 without active bleeding. Which
prescription should the nurse anticipate?

A. Administer protamine sulfate
B. Administer vitamin K as indicated
C. Give aspirin
D. Increase the warfarin dose

Answer: Administer vitamin K as indicated

Rationale: An excessively elevated INR increases bleeding risk. Vitamin K may be
prescribed depending on the degree of elevation and clinical circumstances.
Protamine sulfate reverses heparin, not warfarin.



3. A patient receiving unfractionated heparin develops a platelet count that
falls from 220,000/mm³ to 95,000/mm³. What is the nurse's priority action?

A. Continue heparin and monitor platelets
B. Stop heparin and notify the provider
C. Administer vitamin K
D. Apply pressure to the patient's extremities

Answer: Stop heparin and notify the provider

Rationale: A significant platelet decline after heparin exposure suggests
heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), a potentially life-threatening
prothrombotic disorder. Heparin should be discontinued and an alternative
anticoagulant may be prescribed.

, 4. A patient taking lisinopril develops facial swelling and difficulty swallowing.
What should the nurse do first?

A. Administer the next dose with food
B. Place the patient supine
C. Hold lisinopril and initiate emergency management
D. Document the finding as an expected adverse effect

Answer: Hold lisinopril and initiate emergency management

Rationale: Angioedema is a potentially life-threatening adverse reaction to ACE
inhibitors and can rapidly compromise the airway. The medication must be
discontinued and immediate airway-focused treatment initiated.



5. A patient receiving IV vancomycin develops flushing, erythema, and
pruritus over the face and upper torso during infusion. Which intervention
is most appropriate?

A. Increase the infusion rate
B. Stop or slow the infusion and notify the provider
C. Administer another dose immediately
D. Permanently discontinue all antibiotics

Answer: Stop or slow the infusion and notify the provider

Rationale: Rapid vancomycin infusion can cause vancomycin infusion reaction,
characterized by flushing and pruritus. Slowing or temporarily stopping the
infusion and providing appropriate treatment can reduce symptoms.



6. A patient receiving gentamicin has a rising serum creatinine and reports
new difficulty hearing. Which adverse effects should the nurse suspect?

A. Hepatotoxicity and pancreatitis
B. Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

, C. Cardiotoxicity and hyperglycemia
D. Bone marrow suppression and constipation

Answer: Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

Rationale: Aminoglycosides such as gentamicin can cause significant renal injury
and vestibular or cochlear toxicity. Renal function and auditory symptoms
require close monitoring.



7. A patient taking lithium develops severe diarrhea, coarse tremors, ataxia,
and confusion. What is the priority nursing action?

A. Administer the next lithium dose
B. Encourage a high-calcium diet
C. Hold lithium and notify the provider
D. Restrict sodium intake

Answer: Hold lithium and notify the provider

Rationale: Severe gastrointestinal symptoms, coarse tremor, ataxia, and
confusion indicate possible lithium toxicity. Lithium has a narrow therapeutic
index, and toxicity requires prompt evaluation and treatment.



8. Which laboratory result is most important for a patient receiving
unfractionated heparin?

A. INR
B. aPTT or institution-specific anti-Xa level
C. Serum amylase
D. Hemoglobin A1c

Answer: aPTT or institution-specific anti-Xa level

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