NR 507 Advanced Pathophysiology Week 4
Midterm Exam | Questions 1-100 with
Answers | Examplify Online Proctored
Assessment | NR 507 Advanced
Pathophysiology Week 4 Exam
,
,SECTION 1: CELLULAR ADAPTATION, INJURY, AND DEATH
1. A 55-year-old male with longstanding hypertension develops left ventricular
wall thickening on echocardiography. Which cellular mechanism is primarily
responsible for this finding?
A) Hyperplasia of cardiac myocytes increasing cell number
B) Atrophy of cardiac myocytes with compensatory fibrosis
C) Metaplasia of cardiac muscle to smooth muscle tissue
D) Hypertrophy of individual cardiac myocytes in response to pressure overload
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pressure overload from hypertension causes individual cardiac
myocytes to increase in size (hypertrophy). Cardiac myocytes are terminally
differentiated and cannot undergo hyperplasia (increased cell number), and
metaplasia does not occur in cardiac muscle .
2. What is the primary mechanism of cellular atrophy?
A) Increased protein synthesis
B) Decreased protein synthesis and increased autophagy
C) Cell division
D) Lipid accumulation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Atrophy results from disuse, denervation, or ischemia leading to
decreased ubiquitin-proteasome activity and increased lysosomal degradation.
Clinical correlation includes muscle atrophy in immobilization or stroke .
3. A patient who smokes has a change in the bronchial epithelium from ciliated
columnar to stratified squamous. This cellular adaptation is BEST described as:
, A) Hyperplasia
B) Hypertrophy
C) Atrophy
D) Metaplasia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Metaplasia is the reversible replacement of one differentiated cell type
with another in response to chronic irritation. Squamous metaplasia occurs when
columnar epithelium transforms to squamous epithelium in response to chronic
stress (e.g., smoking). This change is reversible if the stimulus is removed .
4. A patient has a Pap smear showing abnormal cells that are not clearly
malignant but show cellular atypia and increased mitotic activity. This finding is
BEST described as:
A) Metaplasia
B) Hyperplasia
C) Dysplasia
D) Anaplasia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Dysplasia is a loss of cellular uniformity and architectural organization,
characterized by cellular atypia and increased mitotic activity, and is considered a
precursor to malignancy .
5. What is the hallmark of coagulative necrosis?
A) Liquefaction of tissue
B) Preserved cell outlines with hypereosinophilic cytoplasm
C) Caseous debris formation
D) Fat saponification
Correct Answer: B
Midterm Exam | Questions 1-100 with
Answers | Examplify Online Proctored
Assessment | NR 507 Advanced
Pathophysiology Week 4 Exam
,
,SECTION 1: CELLULAR ADAPTATION, INJURY, AND DEATH
1. A 55-year-old male with longstanding hypertension develops left ventricular
wall thickening on echocardiography. Which cellular mechanism is primarily
responsible for this finding?
A) Hyperplasia of cardiac myocytes increasing cell number
B) Atrophy of cardiac myocytes with compensatory fibrosis
C) Metaplasia of cardiac muscle to smooth muscle tissue
D) Hypertrophy of individual cardiac myocytes in response to pressure overload
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pressure overload from hypertension causes individual cardiac
myocytes to increase in size (hypertrophy). Cardiac myocytes are terminally
differentiated and cannot undergo hyperplasia (increased cell number), and
metaplasia does not occur in cardiac muscle .
2. What is the primary mechanism of cellular atrophy?
A) Increased protein synthesis
B) Decreased protein synthesis and increased autophagy
C) Cell division
D) Lipid accumulation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Atrophy results from disuse, denervation, or ischemia leading to
decreased ubiquitin-proteasome activity and increased lysosomal degradation.
Clinical correlation includes muscle atrophy in immobilization or stroke .
3. A patient who smokes has a change in the bronchial epithelium from ciliated
columnar to stratified squamous. This cellular adaptation is BEST described as:
, A) Hyperplasia
B) Hypertrophy
C) Atrophy
D) Metaplasia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Metaplasia is the reversible replacement of one differentiated cell type
with another in response to chronic irritation. Squamous metaplasia occurs when
columnar epithelium transforms to squamous epithelium in response to chronic
stress (e.g., smoking). This change is reversible if the stimulus is removed .
4. A patient has a Pap smear showing abnormal cells that are not clearly
malignant but show cellular atypia and increased mitotic activity. This finding is
BEST described as:
A) Metaplasia
B) Hyperplasia
C) Dysplasia
D) Anaplasia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Dysplasia is a loss of cellular uniformity and architectural organization,
characterized by cellular atypia and increased mitotic activity, and is considered a
precursor to malignancy .
5. What is the hallmark of coagulative necrosis?
A) Liquefaction of tissue
B) Preserved cell outlines with hypereosinophilic cytoplasm
C) Caseous debris formation
D) Fat saponification
Correct Answer: B
