Western Governors University D 236
D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for
the Advanced Practice Nurse exam
Terms in this set (343)
Which type of genetic disease affects malesSex-Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one
Y, more frequently than females? if the affected chromosome has the illness, it will be
expressed.
In which two conditions are chromosomal Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome
abnormalities the leading known cause? abnormalities are the leading known cause of intellectual
disability and fetal miscarriage.
,What are three examples of prenatal Chorionic villus sampling (CVS), amniocentesis,
and diagnostic studies? preimplantation genetic testing (PGT) are examples
of
prenatal diagnostic studies and are performed in vitro. CVS is
a form of genetic testing that provides genetic
information found in utero and is usually performed between
weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An amniocentesis is a form of
genetic testing that evaluates amniotic fluid and is usually
performed during the second trimester, between weeks 15
and 20 of pregnancy. PGT is performed on the embryo
prior to implantation.
Which genetic disorder is characterized by Cri du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is caused
the presence of a zygote having one by a DNA deletion. This term describes the cry often
heard chromosome with a normal complement of from a baby affected by the syndrome. Cri du chat
syndrome genes and one chromosome with a missing can present as a microcephalic, low birth-
weight baby with a gene? piercing cry.
How can an X-linked recessive disease skip The disease can be transmitted through female carriers.
generations?
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome,
the mother may provide an unaffected X to a daughter
or son. Furthermore, a daughter may not show signs of the
disease because she has the other X (the only X the father
can give to a female) to cancel it out.
Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio Relative risk is a ratio of probability, not an actual
occurrence of the disease rate among the entire of disease.
population to the disease rate in an
unexposed population?
What are the empirical risks for most Many factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial
multifactorial diseases based on? diseases. Observation and evaluation of each case
individually
provides the most thorough and accurate assessment.
What refers to the silenced gene of a gene The imprinted gene is the silent gene of a gene
pair. pair.
What is the primary reason that some older The underlying chronic illness exists.
adults have impaired inflammation and A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic
illness wound healing? depletes the body's reserves to fight against illness.
Which cells are the body's primary defense Eosinophils are the body's primary defense against parasites.
against parasite invasion?
What Phagocytes bacteria? Macrophages work by eating or phagocytosing bacteria.
What is the first response to a foreign Helper T
cells pathogen?
Which characteristic is the most important Immunogenicity is primarily based on the ability to
recognize determinant of immunogenicity when something foreign.
considering the antigen?
,How are erythrocytes destroyed when The complement pathway is activated in response to blood
mismatched blood is administered, causing incompatibility.
an ABO incompatibility?
What is the hypersensitivity reaction that An immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic
causes atopic dermatitis? dermatitis.
Which four infections are considered fungal Infection with a fungus is called mycosis and includes
infections? dermatophytes (e.g., tineas, which refers to several skin
mycoses, including ringworm and athlete's foot) and yeasts,
which include candida and aspergillus.
When is the earliest after sexual transmission Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after sexual
of HIV that lab results can detect infection? transmission, whereas HIV antibody testing may take 23 to 90
days to result in a positive test. Repeat testing may be
needed to rule out a false negative test due to testing too
soon after exposure, especially if a high likelihood of
exposure is suspected.
What is a characteristic of exotoxins? Exotoxins are released during bacterial growth.
Which dietary lifestyle choice has been The results of decreased fat consumption have been widely
associated with a decreased risk for studied and have demonstrated a decreased risk of
developing colon cancer? developing colon cancer.
Which cancer is an individual who has Asbestos exposure results in an increased risk of lung
and worked with asbestos for over 40 years lung lining cancer.
most likely to develop?
Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet UV light causes basal cell carcinoma and
squamous cell (UV) light? carcinoma when the UVB rays hit DNA strands, causing
The degree of damage is not affected by thymine base pairs that are side by side to pair
together,
the light's wavelength. becoming thymine dimers. These thymine dimers lead to
cell death or cancer.
Which cancer does exercise have a Exercise-induced myokines cause apoptosis of colon cancer
convincing impact on reducing? cells.
Low healthcare literacy is recognized as a TRUE
major risk factor in blood pressure control By providing patient education at the appropriate
literacy and has been shown to have adverse effects level, improved health outcomes
may result.
on health outcomes.
true or false
One of the goals of the National Action Plan True
to Improve Health Literacy is to incorporate Ensuring the individual can understand all elements of
a research and evidence-based plans of treatment plan is crucial for understanding and
compliance. treatment from childhood through
university-level education in a manner
consistent with an individual's literacy level.
True or false
, What is a red flag for low healthcare Low literacy often leads to perceived noncompliance to
literacy? medical instructions, including medication instructions.
Ensuring the patient fully understands all instructions is critical
for understanding.
Amniocentesis is recommended for Those who have a family history of genetic
disorders pregnant women with certain health
histories.
Which health history would result in
an amniocentesis
recommendation?
Studies have identified several genes that Regulation of appetite-Research has shown that genetic
play a role in the prevention of obesity. mutations may cause alterations in the regulation of
appetite. What do these genes influence?
Which concept is data reporting that sickle Prevalence tells us how often disease is seen in a
population, cell disease affects approximately 1 in 600 which includes all people with the disease
at a given time, at black Americans an example of? any stage in the disease progression.
What describes a chromosomal defect Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by a disorder of a portion of
caused by Prader-Willi syndrome? chromosome 15. Normally, a portion of this chromosome
is
inherited from both parents. With Prader-Willi syndrome,
the chromosome inherited from the father is problematic.
Which action is a purpose of the Prevent infection of the injured tissue
inflammatory process? The inflammatory response is a defense mechanism
designed to remove damaged tissue so the body can
heal.
Which leukocytes are elevated in response Neutrophils are one of the first responders to acute
to acute inflammatory reactions when inflammation, and an increase in neutrophils demonstrates an
considering white blood cell differentials? acute inflammatory response.
Monocytes
Neutrophils
Basophils
Eosinophils
Which type of immunity is produced by an Active-acquired immunity or naturally acquired
active individual after either natural exposure to immunity occurs when an individual is
exposed to a live
the antigen or after immunization against the pathogen and develops the disease or becomes immune as a
antigen? result of a vaccine.
Which characteristics do atopic individuals The greater quantities of IgE in atopic individuals make them
have that make them genetically genetically predisposed to develop allergies. IgE
mediates predisposed to develop allergies? the immune response to allergens; therefore, the more IgE
one has, the stronger the response can be to an allergen.
Think of it as having more soldiers in the army to fight the war.
A healthcare professional is conducting Vaccines require booster injections to maintain life-long
community education on vaccinations. protection.
Which statement about vaccines should the Most vaccines require a booster to increase immunity.
The professional include in the presentation? initial effects of a vaccine may diminish over
time, and
boosters improve protection against disease.
D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for
the Advanced Practice Nurse exam
Terms in this set (343)
Which type of genetic disease affects malesSex-Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one
Y, more frequently than females? if the affected chromosome has the illness, it will be
expressed.
In which two conditions are chromosomal Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome
abnormalities the leading known cause? abnormalities are the leading known cause of intellectual
disability and fetal miscarriage.
,What are three examples of prenatal Chorionic villus sampling (CVS), amniocentesis,
and diagnostic studies? preimplantation genetic testing (PGT) are examples
of
prenatal diagnostic studies and are performed in vitro. CVS is
a form of genetic testing that provides genetic
information found in utero and is usually performed between
weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An amniocentesis is a form of
genetic testing that evaluates amniotic fluid and is usually
performed during the second trimester, between weeks 15
and 20 of pregnancy. PGT is performed on the embryo
prior to implantation.
Which genetic disorder is characterized by Cri du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is caused
the presence of a zygote having one by a DNA deletion. This term describes the cry often
heard chromosome with a normal complement of from a baby affected by the syndrome. Cri du chat
syndrome genes and one chromosome with a missing can present as a microcephalic, low birth-
weight baby with a gene? piercing cry.
How can an X-linked recessive disease skip The disease can be transmitted through female carriers.
generations?
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome,
the mother may provide an unaffected X to a daughter
or son. Furthermore, a daughter may not show signs of the
disease because she has the other X (the only X the father
can give to a female) to cancel it out.
Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio Relative risk is a ratio of probability, not an actual
occurrence of the disease rate among the entire of disease.
population to the disease rate in an
unexposed population?
What are the empirical risks for most Many factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial
multifactorial diseases based on? diseases. Observation and evaluation of each case
individually
provides the most thorough and accurate assessment.
What refers to the silenced gene of a gene The imprinted gene is the silent gene of a gene
pair. pair.
What is the primary reason that some older The underlying chronic illness exists.
adults have impaired inflammation and A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic
illness wound healing? depletes the body's reserves to fight against illness.
Which cells are the body's primary defense Eosinophils are the body's primary defense against parasites.
against parasite invasion?
What Phagocytes bacteria? Macrophages work by eating or phagocytosing bacteria.
What is the first response to a foreign Helper T
cells pathogen?
Which characteristic is the most important Immunogenicity is primarily based on the ability to
recognize determinant of immunogenicity when something foreign.
considering the antigen?
,How are erythrocytes destroyed when The complement pathway is activated in response to blood
mismatched blood is administered, causing incompatibility.
an ABO incompatibility?
What is the hypersensitivity reaction that An immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic
causes atopic dermatitis? dermatitis.
Which four infections are considered fungal Infection with a fungus is called mycosis and includes
infections? dermatophytes (e.g., tineas, which refers to several skin
mycoses, including ringworm and athlete's foot) and yeasts,
which include candida and aspergillus.
When is the earliest after sexual transmission Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after sexual
of HIV that lab results can detect infection? transmission, whereas HIV antibody testing may take 23 to 90
days to result in a positive test. Repeat testing may be
needed to rule out a false negative test due to testing too
soon after exposure, especially if a high likelihood of
exposure is suspected.
What is a characteristic of exotoxins? Exotoxins are released during bacterial growth.
Which dietary lifestyle choice has been The results of decreased fat consumption have been widely
associated with a decreased risk for studied and have demonstrated a decreased risk of
developing colon cancer? developing colon cancer.
Which cancer is an individual who has Asbestos exposure results in an increased risk of lung
and worked with asbestos for over 40 years lung lining cancer.
most likely to develop?
Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet UV light causes basal cell carcinoma and
squamous cell (UV) light? carcinoma when the UVB rays hit DNA strands, causing
The degree of damage is not affected by thymine base pairs that are side by side to pair
together,
the light's wavelength. becoming thymine dimers. These thymine dimers lead to
cell death or cancer.
Which cancer does exercise have a Exercise-induced myokines cause apoptosis of colon cancer
convincing impact on reducing? cells.
Low healthcare literacy is recognized as a TRUE
major risk factor in blood pressure control By providing patient education at the appropriate
literacy and has been shown to have adverse effects level, improved health outcomes
may result.
on health outcomes.
true or false
One of the goals of the National Action Plan True
to Improve Health Literacy is to incorporate Ensuring the individual can understand all elements of
a research and evidence-based plans of treatment plan is crucial for understanding and
compliance. treatment from childhood through
university-level education in a manner
consistent with an individual's literacy level.
True or false
, What is a red flag for low healthcare Low literacy often leads to perceived noncompliance to
literacy? medical instructions, including medication instructions.
Ensuring the patient fully understands all instructions is critical
for understanding.
Amniocentesis is recommended for Those who have a family history of genetic
disorders pregnant women with certain health
histories.
Which health history would result in
an amniocentesis
recommendation?
Studies have identified several genes that Regulation of appetite-Research has shown that genetic
play a role in the prevention of obesity. mutations may cause alterations in the regulation of
appetite. What do these genes influence?
Which concept is data reporting that sickle Prevalence tells us how often disease is seen in a
population, cell disease affects approximately 1 in 600 which includes all people with the disease
at a given time, at black Americans an example of? any stage in the disease progression.
What describes a chromosomal defect Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by a disorder of a portion of
caused by Prader-Willi syndrome? chromosome 15. Normally, a portion of this chromosome
is
inherited from both parents. With Prader-Willi syndrome,
the chromosome inherited from the father is problematic.
Which action is a purpose of the Prevent infection of the injured tissue
inflammatory process? The inflammatory response is a defense mechanism
designed to remove damaged tissue so the body can
heal.
Which leukocytes are elevated in response Neutrophils are one of the first responders to acute
to acute inflammatory reactions when inflammation, and an increase in neutrophils demonstrates an
considering white blood cell differentials? acute inflammatory response.
Monocytes
Neutrophils
Basophils
Eosinophils
Which type of immunity is produced by an Active-acquired immunity or naturally acquired
active individual after either natural exposure to immunity occurs when an individual is
exposed to a live
the antigen or after immunization against the pathogen and develops the disease or becomes immune as a
antigen? result of a vaccine.
Which characteristics do atopic individuals The greater quantities of IgE in atopic individuals make them
have that make them genetically genetically predisposed to develop allergies. IgE
mediates predisposed to develop allergies? the immune response to allergens; therefore, the more IgE
one has, the stronger the response can be to an allergen.
Think of it as having more soldiers in the army to fight the war.
A healthcare professional is conducting Vaccines require booster injections to maintain life-long
community education on vaccinations. protection.
Which statement about vaccines should the Most vaccines require a booster to increase immunity.
The professional include in the presentation? initial effects of a vaccine may diminish over
time, and
boosters improve protection against disease.
