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ADVANCED PRACTICE NURSING I - EXAM 2 COMPREHENSIVE ASSESSMENT

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ADVANCED PRACTICE NURSING I - EXAM 2 COMPREHENSIVE ASSESSMENT

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ADVANCED PRACTICE NURSING I -
EXAM 2 COMPREHENSIVE
ASSESSMENT




1. A 65-year-old male presents with a harsh, crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur heard

best at the right second intercostal space, radiating to the carotid arteries. Which of the

following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Mitral Regurgitation


B. Aortic Regurgitation


C. Mitral Valve Prolapse


D. Aortic Stenosis


Answer: D


Conceptual Explanation: Aortic stenosis is characterized by a harsh systolic crescendo-

decrescendo murmur at the right upper sternal border that radiates to the neck.

,2. Which of the following pharmacological agents is considered first-line treatment for a 55-

year-old African American patient with newly diagnosed Stage 1 Hypertension and no

comorbidities?

A. Lisinopril


B. Losartan


C. Amlodipine


D. Metoprolol


Answer: C


Conceptual Explanation: According to JNC 8 and ACC/AHA guidelines, Calcium Channel

Blockers (CCBs) or thiazide-type diuretics are preferred first-line agents for the African

American population.


3. In patients with Heart Failure with Reduced Ejection Fraction (HFrEF), which medication

class is known to reduce mortality and should be initiated in all stable patients?

A. Loop Diuretics


B. Beta-Blockers


C. Calcium Channel Blockers


D. Digoxin


Answer: B

, Conceptual Explanation: Beta-blockers (specifically carvedilol, metoprolol succinate, or

bisoprolol) are proven to reduce mortality and morbidity in HFrEF patients.


4. A 45-year-old patient presents with a ‘ripping’ or ‘tearing’ chest pain that radiates to the

back between the scapulae. The clinician should immediately suspect:

A. Myocardial Infarction


B. Pulmonary Embolism


C. Aortic Dissection


D. Pneumothorax


Answer: C


Conceptual Explanation: Tearing chest pain radiating to the back is a classic presentation

of aortic dissection, requiring emergent imaging.


5. A patient’s EKG shows a PR interval of 0.24 seconds with a 1:1 P to QRS ratio. What is the

interpretation?

A. First-degree AV Block


B. Second-degree AV Block Type I


C. Second-degree AV Block Type II


D. Third-degree AV Block


Answer: A

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