NR565 Week 4 Midterm Exam Review Examplify
Online Proctored Exam ,NR-565 Advanced
Pharmacology Fundamentals | 100% Pass Guaranteed
| Graded A+ Question and correct Answers.
1.A 68-year-old man with COPD reports progressive shortness of
breath. Which acid-base disturbance is most likely during an acute
exacerbation?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Respiratory acidosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
Answer: B. Respiratory acidosis
Rationale: In acute COPD exacerbations, hypoventilation causes CO₂
retention, leading to respiratory acidosis. Chronic compensation may be
present, but an acute exacerbation worsens PaCO₂.
2.Which lab value best indicates acute myocardial injury?
A. Elevated BNP
B. Elevated troponin I or T
C. Elevated CRP
D. Elevated AST
Answer: B. Elevated troponin I or T
Rationale: Troponins are highly specific and sensitive markers for
myocardial necrosis; BNP is for heart failure, CRP for inflammation,
and AST is nonspecific.
,3. A patient on ACE inhibitor develops a dry cough. The mechanism
is most likely due to accumulation of:
A. Bradykinin
B. Angiotensin II
C. Aldosterone
D. Renin
Answer: A. Bradykinin
Rationale: ACE normally breaks down bradykinin. ACE inhibitors
reduce bradykinin degradation, causing bradykinin accumulation, which
can lead to a persistent dry cough.
4. A patient with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. Which
laboratory value is most important to monitor because
abnormalities can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity?
A. Sodium
B. Calcium
C. Potassium
D. Chloride
Answer: C. Potassium
Rationale: Hypokalemia increases digoxin binding to the Na⁺/K⁺-
ATPase and increases the risk of toxicity.
5. Which pharmacokinetic process refers to the movement of a drug
from the bloodstream into body tissues?
,A. Distribution
B. Absorption
C. Metabolism
D. Excretion
Answer: A. Distribution
Rationale: Distribution is the reversible transfer of a drug between the
bloodstream and tissues.
6. A patient taking warfarin is started on trimethoprim-
sulfamethoxazole. What is the most likely effect?
A. Decreased INR
B. Reduced bleeding risk
C. No significant interaction
D. Increased INR and bleeding risk
Answer: D. Increased INR and bleeding risk
Rationale: Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole can increase warfarin's
anticoagulant effect, raising the INR and bleeding risk.
7. Which statement best describes a partial agonist?
A. It produces a maximal response at all receptors.
B. It produces a smaller maximal response than a full agonist, even
when occupying all receptors.
C. It binds to a receptor without producing any response.
D. It permanently destroys the receptor.
Answer: B. It produces a smaller maximal response than a full
agonist, even when occupying all receptors.
, Rationale: A partial agonist activates a receptor but has lower intrinsic
activity than a full agonist.
8. A patient develops angioedema after starting an ACE inhibitor.
Which medication should generally be avoided in the future?
A. Lisinopril
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Amlodipine
D. Metoprolol
Answer: A. Lisinopril
Rationale: Angioedema is a potentially serious adverse effect of ACE
inhibitors. The medication should be discontinued, and future ACE
inhibitor use is generally avoided.
9. Which medication is most likely to cause a persistent dry cough?
A. Losartan
B. Amlodipine
C. Lisinopril
D. Furosemide
Answer: C. Lisinopril
Rationale: ACE inhibitors can increase bradykinin levels, causing a
persistent dry cough.
10. A patient taking furosemide reports weakness and palpitations.
Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely?
Online Proctored Exam ,NR-565 Advanced
Pharmacology Fundamentals | 100% Pass Guaranteed
| Graded A+ Question and correct Answers.
1.A 68-year-old man with COPD reports progressive shortness of
breath. Which acid-base disturbance is most likely during an acute
exacerbation?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Respiratory acidosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
Answer: B. Respiratory acidosis
Rationale: In acute COPD exacerbations, hypoventilation causes CO₂
retention, leading to respiratory acidosis. Chronic compensation may be
present, but an acute exacerbation worsens PaCO₂.
2.Which lab value best indicates acute myocardial injury?
A. Elevated BNP
B. Elevated troponin I or T
C. Elevated CRP
D. Elevated AST
Answer: B. Elevated troponin I or T
Rationale: Troponins are highly specific and sensitive markers for
myocardial necrosis; BNP is for heart failure, CRP for inflammation,
and AST is nonspecific.
,3. A patient on ACE inhibitor develops a dry cough. The mechanism
is most likely due to accumulation of:
A. Bradykinin
B. Angiotensin II
C. Aldosterone
D. Renin
Answer: A. Bradykinin
Rationale: ACE normally breaks down bradykinin. ACE inhibitors
reduce bradykinin degradation, causing bradykinin accumulation, which
can lead to a persistent dry cough.
4. A patient with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. Which
laboratory value is most important to monitor because
abnormalities can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity?
A. Sodium
B. Calcium
C. Potassium
D. Chloride
Answer: C. Potassium
Rationale: Hypokalemia increases digoxin binding to the Na⁺/K⁺-
ATPase and increases the risk of toxicity.
5. Which pharmacokinetic process refers to the movement of a drug
from the bloodstream into body tissues?
,A. Distribution
B. Absorption
C. Metabolism
D. Excretion
Answer: A. Distribution
Rationale: Distribution is the reversible transfer of a drug between the
bloodstream and tissues.
6. A patient taking warfarin is started on trimethoprim-
sulfamethoxazole. What is the most likely effect?
A. Decreased INR
B. Reduced bleeding risk
C. No significant interaction
D. Increased INR and bleeding risk
Answer: D. Increased INR and bleeding risk
Rationale: Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole can increase warfarin's
anticoagulant effect, raising the INR and bleeding risk.
7. Which statement best describes a partial agonist?
A. It produces a maximal response at all receptors.
B. It produces a smaller maximal response than a full agonist, even
when occupying all receptors.
C. It binds to a receptor without producing any response.
D. It permanently destroys the receptor.
Answer: B. It produces a smaller maximal response than a full
agonist, even when occupying all receptors.
, Rationale: A partial agonist activates a receptor but has lower intrinsic
activity than a full agonist.
8. A patient develops angioedema after starting an ACE inhibitor.
Which medication should generally be avoided in the future?
A. Lisinopril
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Amlodipine
D. Metoprolol
Answer: A. Lisinopril
Rationale: Angioedema is a potentially serious adverse effect of ACE
inhibitors. The medication should be discontinued, and future ACE
inhibitor use is generally avoided.
9. Which medication is most likely to cause a persistent dry cough?
A. Losartan
B. Amlodipine
C. Lisinopril
D. Furosemide
Answer: C. Lisinopril
Rationale: ACE inhibitors can increase bradykinin levels, causing a
persistent dry cough.
10. A patient taking furosemide reports weakness and palpitations.
Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely?
