FNP • FAMILY NURSE PRACTITIONER II
NURS 5433/ NURS5433 Midterm Exam –
Family II (FNP 2) Review| UTA
(Latest 2026/2027 Update) 100% Verified
Questions & Answers | Grade A **2026/2027**
Complete Blueprint Coverage • Primary Care Across the Lifespan
A+
A+ 5 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED EXAM DOMAINS COVERED RATIONALES INCLUDED
CATEGORIES
I. Eye, Ear, Nose & Throat Disorders
II. Respiratory Disorders in Primary Care
III. Infectious Diseases Across the Lifespan
IV. Renal & Urological Disorders
V. Clinical Decision-Making, Differentials & Pharmacotherapeutics
STUVIAACTUALEXAM
, SECTION I — EYE, EAR, NOSE & THROAT DISORDERS
1 A 28-year-old presents with a 3-day history of unilateral ear pain, fever, and decreased hearing. Otoscopic exam reveals a
bulging, erythematous tympanic membrane with limited mobility. The most appropriate first-line pharmacologic therapy for this
otherwise healthy adult is:
A. Amoxicillin 500 mg three times daily for 5–7 days
B. Watchful waiting without antibiotics for all adults
C. Oral prednisone for 5 days
D. Ciprofloxacin otic drops only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acute otitis media in adults is typically treated with high-dose amoxicillin when bacterial infection is likely. Otic drops alone are insufficient for
middle-ear infection; systemic antibiotics are indicated.
2 A 45-year-old reports sudden onset of spinning vertigo, nausea, and unilateral hearing loss. The episode lasts hours. The FNP
suspects Ménière disease. The initial nonpharmacologic recommendation should include:
A. Immediate referral for cochlear implant
B. High-dose loop diuretic as sole therapy
C. Low-sodium diet and limitation of caffeine and alcohol
D. Bed rest for 2 weeks without further evaluation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Lifestyle measures (salt restriction, avoidance of triggers) are first-line for Ménière disease. Pharmacologic and surgical options are
considered for refractory cases.
3 A school-age child has bilateral conjunctival injection, watery discharge, and preauricular lymphadenopathy after a recent upper
respiratory infection. The most likely etiology is:
A. Bacterial conjunctivitis requiring immediate topical antibiotics
B. Allergic conjunctivitis only
C. Viral (adenoviral) conjunctivitis
D. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Watery discharge, preauricular nodes, and concurrent URI strongly suggest viral conjunctivitis. Bacterial infection typically produces purulent
discharge; glaucoma presents with severe pain and visual change.
4 A 62-year-old with allergic rhinitis reports persistent nasal congestion despite daily intranasal corticosteroid. The next
evidence-based step is:
A. Start long-term systemic antibiotic therapy
B. Add an intranasal antihistamine or consider short-course oral corticosteroid for severe symptoms
C. Order immediate CT of the sinuses without further trial of medical therapy
D. Discontinue the intranasal steroid and switch to oral decongestants only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Combination therapy (intranasal steroid + antihistamine) improves control. Imaging is reserved for refractory or complicated cases; oral
decongestants are not preferred long-term.
5 A 19-year-old college student presents with severe sore throat, fever, tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy, and tonsillar
exudates. Rapid strep antigen is negative. The most appropriate next action is:
A. Order immediate monospot only and withhold any bacterial testing
B. Prescribe broad-spectrum antibiotic for 14 days without further evaluation
C. Obtain throat culture (or molecular test) and consider empiric treatment if clinical suspicion remains high
D. Reassure that viral infection is certain and send home without further testing
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Negative rapid antigen tests should be confirmed by culture or NAAT in higher-risk settings because false negatives occur. Centor criteria
guide empiric decisions while awaiting results.
NURS 5433/ NURS5433 Midterm Exam –
Family II (FNP 2) Review| UTA
(Latest 2026/2027 Update) 100% Verified
Questions & Answers | Grade A **2026/2027**
Complete Blueprint Coverage • Primary Care Across the Lifespan
A+
A+ 5 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED EXAM DOMAINS COVERED RATIONALES INCLUDED
CATEGORIES
I. Eye, Ear, Nose & Throat Disorders
II. Respiratory Disorders in Primary Care
III. Infectious Diseases Across the Lifespan
IV. Renal & Urological Disorders
V. Clinical Decision-Making, Differentials & Pharmacotherapeutics
STUVIAACTUALEXAM
, SECTION I — EYE, EAR, NOSE & THROAT DISORDERS
1 A 28-year-old presents with a 3-day history of unilateral ear pain, fever, and decreased hearing. Otoscopic exam reveals a
bulging, erythematous tympanic membrane with limited mobility. The most appropriate first-line pharmacologic therapy for this
otherwise healthy adult is:
A. Amoxicillin 500 mg three times daily for 5–7 days
B. Watchful waiting without antibiotics for all adults
C. Oral prednisone for 5 days
D. Ciprofloxacin otic drops only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acute otitis media in adults is typically treated with high-dose amoxicillin when bacterial infection is likely. Otic drops alone are insufficient for
middle-ear infection; systemic antibiotics are indicated.
2 A 45-year-old reports sudden onset of spinning vertigo, nausea, and unilateral hearing loss. The episode lasts hours. The FNP
suspects Ménière disease. The initial nonpharmacologic recommendation should include:
A. Immediate referral for cochlear implant
B. High-dose loop diuretic as sole therapy
C. Low-sodium diet and limitation of caffeine and alcohol
D. Bed rest for 2 weeks without further evaluation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Lifestyle measures (salt restriction, avoidance of triggers) are first-line for Ménière disease. Pharmacologic and surgical options are
considered for refractory cases.
3 A school-age child has bilateral conjunctival injection, watery discharge, and preauricular lymphadenopathy after a recent upper
respiratory infection. The most likely etiology is:
A. Bacterial conjunctivitis requiring immediate topical antibiotics
B. Allergic conjunctivitis only
C. Viral (adenoviral) conjunctivitis
D. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Watery discharge, preauricular nodes, and concurrent URI strongly suggest viral conjunctivitis. Bacterial infection typically produces purulent
discharge; glaucoma presents with severe pain and visual change.
4 A 62-year-old with allergic rhinitis reports persistent nasal congestion despite daily intranasal corticosteroid. The next
evidence-based step is:
A. Start long-term systemic antibiotic therapy
B. Add an intranasal antihistamine or consider short-course oral corticosteroid for severe symptoms
C. Order immediate CT of the sinuses without further trial of medical therapy
D. Discontinue the intranasal steroid and switch to oral decongestants only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Combination therapy (intranasal steroid + antihistamine) improves control. Imaging is reserved for refractory or complicated cases; oral
decongestants are not preferred long-term.
5 A 19-year-old college student presents with severe sore throat, fever, tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy, and tonsillar
exudates. Rapid strep antigen is negative. The most appropriate next action is:
A. Order immediate monospot only and withhold any bacterial testing
B. Prescribe broad-spectrum antibiotic for 14 days without further evaluation
C. Obtain throat culture (or molecular test) and consider empiric treatment if clinical suspicion remains high
D. Reassure that viral infection is certain and send home without further testing
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Negative rapid antigen tests should be confirmed by culture or NAAT in higher-risk settings because false negatives occur. Centor criteria
guide empiric decisions while awaiting results.
