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NSG 555 Exam 2 V1 | NSG 555 Nurse Practitioners in Primary Care I | Wilkes University | 2026 Q&A with Rationale (Wilkes NSG555 Exam 2 2026)

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NSG 555 Exam 2 V1 | NSG 555 Nurse Practitioners in Primary Care I | Wilkes University | 2026 Q&A with Rationale (Wilkes NSG555 Exam 2 2026)

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NSG 555 Exam 2 V1 | NSG 555 Nurse Practitioners
in Primary Care I | Wilkes University | 2026 Q&A
with Rationale (Wilkes NSG555 Exam 2 2026)
1. A 55-year-old male with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents for follow-up. His

BP is 148/92 mmHg today. Which class of medication is the most appropriate first-line choice

for this patient?

A. Calcium Channel Blockers


B. Beta-Blockers


C. Loop Diuretics


D. ACE Inhibitors


Correct Answer: D


Explanation: ACE inhibitors are first-line therapy for hypertensive patients with diabetes

because they provide significant renoprotective benefits. According to the JNC 8 and ADA

guidelines, these agents help delay the progression of diabetic nephropathy by reducing

intraglomerular pressure. While other agents like CCBs are effective, ACE inhibitors or

ARBs should be prioritized in this specific patient population.


2. A 68-year-old patient presents with a chronic cough and progressive shortness of breath.

Spirometry reveals a post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio of 0.65. What is the most likely

diagnosis?

A. Asthma

,B. Restrictive Lung Disease


C. COPD


D. Congestive Heart Failure


Correct Answer: C


Explanation: A post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio of less than 0.70 is the diagnostic

hallmark of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). This ratio indicates persistent

airflow limitation that is not fully reversible, distinguishing it from asthma. The patient’s

age and symptoms of chronic cough and dyspnea are consistent with the GOLD criteria for

COPD diagnosis.


3. A patient with mild persistent asthma is currently using an albuterol inhaler as needed.

What is the next step in the stepwise management of their condition according to GINA

guidelines?

A. Add a long-acting beta-agonist (LABA) only


B. Prescribe oral corticosteroids for daily use


C. Switch to a long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA)


D. Start a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)


Correct Answer: D


Explanation: For patients with mild persistent asthma, the addition of a low-dose inhaled

corticosteroid (ICS) is recommended to manage underlying airway inflammation. Current

,guidelines emphasize that SABA-only treatment is no longer recommended due to the risk

of severe exacerbations. The ICS acts as a controller medication to reduce the frequency

and severity of asthma symptoms over time.


4. Which physical examination finding is most suggestive of Community-Acquired Pneumonia

(CAP) in an older adult?

A. Hyperresonance on percussion


B. Ego-phony and dullness to percussion


C. Wheezing throughout all lung fields


D. Decreased tactile fremitus


Correct Answer: B


Explanation: Ego-phony, where the patient’s ‘ee’ sound is heard as ‘ay’, and dullness to

percussion are classic signs of pulmonary consolidation associated with pneumonia. These

findings indicate that the lung tissue is filled with fluid or inflammatory exudate rather

than air. In older adults, these physical findings may be more reliable than systemic

symptoms like high fever, which may be absent.


5. A 45-year-old female presents with epigastric pain that improves after eating but recurs 2-3

hours later. Which condition is most likely?

A. Gastric Ulcer


B. Acute Cholecystitis


C. Duodenal Ulcer

, D. Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease


Correct Answer: C


Explanation: Pain from a duodenal ulcer is typically relieved by food or antacids because

the food buffers the stomach acid. The pain usually returns when the stomach is empty,

often a few hours after a meal or during the night. In contrast, gastric ulcer pain is often

exacerbated by food intake, leading to weight loss in some patients.


6. What is the primary diagnostic test for a patient suspected of having obstructive sleep

apnea (OSA)?

A. Chest X-ray


B. Pulmonary Function Tests


C. Polysomnography


D. Echocardiogram


Correct Answer: C


Explanation: Polysomnography, or a sleep study, is the gold standard for diagnosing

obstructive sleep apnea. It monitors various physiological parameters including oxygen

saturation, airflow, and brain activity during sleep. This test allows the clinician to

determine the Apnea-Hypopnea Index (AHI) to grade the severity of the disorder.


7. An 82-year-old patient presents with a history of heart failure and is currently taking

Lisinopril. Which lab value must be monitored closely to prevent complications?

A. Serum Potassium

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