CVN Cardiac-Vascular Nursing Certification Exam | Complete
Practice Questions, Correct Answers & Detailed Rationales
(2026/2027)
Question 1
Which physiological parameter primarily determines the ejection
fraction (EF) in a patient with chronic heart failure?
• A. Systemic vascular resistance
• B. Stroke volume relative to end-diastolic volume
• C. Heart rate multiplied by systemic blood pressure
• D. Total circulating blood volume
Correct Answer: B. Stroke volume relative to end-diastolic volume
Detailed Rationale: Ejection fraction represents the percentage of
blood pumped out of the left ventricle with each contraction, calculated
by dividing stroke volume by end-diastolic volume.
Question 2
An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III,
and aVF. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded?
• A. Left Anterior Descending (LAD) artery
• B. Circumflex artery
• C. Right Coronary Artery (RCA)
• D. Left Main Coronary Artery
,Correct Answer: C. Right Coronary Artery (RCA)
Detailed Rationale: Leads II, III, and aVF evaluate the inferior wall of the
left ventricle, which is predominantly supplied by the right coronary
artery in most individuals.
Question 3
Which nursing assessment finding requires immediate intervention in a
patient receiving intravenous metoprolol for rate control of atrial
fibrillation?
• A. Blood pressure of 132/84 mmHg
• B. Heart rate of 48 beats per minute
• C. Respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute
• D. Mild baseline fatigue
Correct Answer: B. Heart rate of 48 beats per minute
Detailed Rationale: Beta-blockers decrease heart rate and myocardial
contractility; a heart rate below 60 beats per minute indicates
bradycardia and warrants holding the medication and notifying the
provider.
Question 4
What is the primary post-procedure nursing intervention immediately
following the removal of a femoral arterial sheath after cardiac
catheterization?
• A. Ambulate the patient to the restroom within 15 minutes.
• B. Apply manual or mechanical pressure proximal to the puncture
site and maintain strict bed rest with the affected leg flat.
, • C. Elevate the head of the bed to 90 degrees.
• D. Apply ice directly to the arterial puncture site indefinitely.
Correct Answer: B. Apply manual or mechanical pressure proximal to
the puncture site and maintain strict bed rest with the affected leg flat.
Detailed Rationale: Maintaining pressure and keeping the affected
extremity flat prevents hematoma formation and bleeding at the
arterial access site.
Question 5
Which clinical manifestation is classically auscultated in a patient with
severe aortic stenosis?
• A. A high-pitched blowing diastolic decrescendo murmur at the
left sternal border
• B. A harsh systolic ejection murmur heard best at the second right
intercostal space radiating to the carotids
• C. A mid-systolic click heard at the apex
• D. A low-pitched rumbling diastolic murmur with an opening snap
Correct Answer: B. A harsh systolic ejection murmur heard best at the
second right intercostal space radiating to the carotids
Detailed Rationale: Aortic stenosis creates turbulence as blood flows
across the narrowed aortic valve during systole, producing a harsh
crescendo-decrescendo murmur heard at the right upper sternal
border.
Question 6
, According to current hypertension guidelines, a patient with a
consistent blood pressure reading of 142/92 mmHg is classified as
having:
• A. Elevated blood pressure
• B. Stage 1 Hypertension
• C. Stage 2 Hypertension
• D. Hypertensive Crisis
Correct Answer: C. Stage 2 Hypertension
Detailed Rationale: Stage 2 hypertension is defined as a systolic blood
pressure of ≥ 140mmHg or a diastolic blood pressure of ≥ 90mmHg.
Question 7
Which adverse effect is uniquely associated with Angiotensin-
Converting Enzyme (ACE) inhibitor therapy, often requiring a switch to
an Angiotensin Receptor Blocker (ARB)?
• A. Persistent dry, hacking cough
• B. Severe peripheral edema
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Reflex tachycardia
Correct Answer: A. Persistent dry, hacking cough
Detailed Rationale: ACE inhibitors inhibit the breakdown of bradykinin,
leading to its accumulation in the respiratory tract, which triggers a
non-productive, hacking cough in some patients.
Question 8
Practice Questions, Correct Answers & Detailed Rationales
(2026/2027)
Question 1
Which physiological parameter primarily determines the ejection
fraction (EF) in a patient with chronic heart failure?
• A. Systemic vascular resistance
• B. Stroke volume relative to end-diastolic volume
• C. Heart rate multiplied by systemic blood pressure
• D. Total circulating blood volume
Correct Answer: B. Stroke volume relative to end-diastolic volume
Detailed Rationale: Ejection fraction represents the percentage of
blood pumped out of the left ventricle with each contraction, calculated
by dividing stroke volume by end-diastolic volume.
Question 2
An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III,
and aVF. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded?
• A. Left Anterior Descending (LAD) artery
• B. Circumflex artery
• C. Right Coronary Artery (RCA)
• D. Left Main Coronary Artery
,Correct Answer: C. Right Coronary Artery (RCA)
Detailed Rationale: Leads II, III, and aVF evaluate the inferior wall of the
left ventricle, which is predominantly supplied by the right coronary
artery in most individuals.
Question 3
Which nursing assessment finding requires immediate intervention in a
patient receiving intravenous metoprolol for rate control of atrial
fibrillation?
• A. Blood pressure of 132/84 mmHg
• B. Heart rate of 48 beats per minute
• C. Respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute
• D. Mild baseline fatigue
Correct Answer: B. Heart rate of 48 beats per minute
Detailed Rationale: Beta-blockers decrease heart rate and myocardial
contractility; a heart rate below 60 beats per minute indicates
bradycardia and warrants holding the medication and notifying the
provider.
Question 4
What is the primary post-procedure nursing intervention immediately
following the removal of a femoral arterial sheath after cardiac
catheterization?
• A. Ambulate the patient to the restroom within 15 minutes.
• B. Apply manual or mechanical pressure proximal to the puncture
site and maintain strict bed rest with the affected leg flat.
, • C. Elevate the head of the bed to 90 degrees.
• D. Apply ice directly to the arterial puncture site indefinitely.
Correct Answer: B. Apply manual or mechanical pressure proximal to
the puncture site and maintain strict bed rest with the affected leg flat.
Detailed Rationale: Maintaining pressure and keeping the affected
extremity flat prevents hematoma formation and bleeding at the
arterial access site.
Question 5
Which clinical manifestation is classically auscultated in a patient with
severe aortic stenosis?
• A. A high-pitched blowing diastolic decrescendo murmur at the
left sternal border
• B. A harsh systolic ejection murmur heard best at the second right
intercostal space radiating to the carotids
• C. A mid-systolic click heard at the apex
• D. A low-pitched rumbling diastolic murmur with an opening snap
Correct Answer: B. A harsh systolic ejection murmur heard best at the
second right intercostal space radiating to the carotids
Detailed Rationale: Aortic stenosis creates turbulence as blood flows
across the narrowed aortic valve during systole, producing a harsh
crescendo-decrescendo murmur heard at the right upper sternal
border.
Question 6
, According to current hypertension guidelines, a patient with a
consistent blood pressure reading of 142/92 mmHg is classified as
having:
• A. Elevated blood pressure
• B. Stage 1 Hypertension
• C. Stage 2 Hypertension
• D. Hypertensive Crisis
Correct Answer: C. Stage 2 Hypertension
Detailed Rationale: Stage 2 hypertension is defined as a systolic blood
pressure of ≥ 140mmHg or a diastolic blood pressure of ≥ 90mmHg.
Question 7
Which adverse effect is uniquely associated with Angiotensin-
Converting Enzyme (ACE) inhibitor therapy, often requiring a switch to
an Angiotensin Receptor Blocker (ARB)?
• A. Persistent dry, hacking cough
• B. Severe peripheral edema
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Reflex tachycardia
Correct Answer: A. Persistent dry, hacking cough
Detailed Rationale: ACE inhibitors inhibit the breakdown of bradykinin,
leading to its accumulation in the respiratory tract, which triggers a
non-productive, hacking cough in some patients.
Question 8
