HESI LPN-ADN ENTRANCE EXAM
COMPREHENSIVE REVIEW
1. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of Digoxin toxicity. Which of the following symptoms
should the nurse expect to find during the assessment?
A. Tachycardia and hypertension
B. Anorexia, nausea, and visual disturbances
C. Increased appetite and diarrhea
D. Hyperactivity and insomnia
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Early signs of digoxin toxicity include gastrointestinal symptoms
like anorexia, nausea, and vomiting, as well as neurological/visual disturbances such as
seeing yellow-green halos.
2. Which arterial blood gas (ABG) result would the nurse anticipate in a client with chronic
obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
A. pH 7.50, PaCO2 30 mmHg, HCO3 22 mEq/L
B. pH 7.33, PaCO2 55 mmHg, HCO3 29 mEq/L
,C. pH 7.35, PaCO2 40 mmHg, HCO3 24 mEq/L
D. pH 7.48, PaCO2 45 mmHg, HCO3 30 mEq/L
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: COPD leads to chronic CO2 retention, resulting in respiratory
acidosis. The body often compensates by increasing bicarbonate levels, leading to a
partially compensated respiratory acidosis profile.
3. The nurse is assigned to four clients. Which client should be assessed first?
A. A client with a history of heart failure reporting 1+ pitting edema
B. A client who had a hip replacement 2 days ago and needs assistance to the bathroom
C. A client with pneumonia who has an oxygen saturation of 94% on 2L NC
D. A client with new-onset chest pain and diaphoresis
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Using the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) priority
framework, the client with chest pain and diaphoresis may be experiencing an acute
myocardial infarction and requires immediate intervention.
4. A client’s potassium level is 3.2 mEq/L. Which clinical manifestation is most likely
associated with this finding?
A. Muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias
B. Hyperreflexia and muscle twitching
, C. Tall, peaked T-waves on ECG
D. Abdominal cramping and diarrhea
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Hypokalemia (potassium < 3.5 mEq/L) commonly causes muscle
weakness, leg cramps, and significant ECG changes or dysrhythmias.
5. Which personal protective equipment (PPE) should the nurse don before entering the room
of a client with Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in a wound?
A. Gown and gloves
B. Mask and goggles
C. N95 respirator and gloves
D. Gloves only
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: MRSA in a wound requires Contact Precautions, which include
the use of a gown and gloves to prevent transmission via direct or indirect contact.
6. A client is prescribed Lispro insulin. When should the nurse ensure the client’s meal is
available?
A. 1 hour after administration
B. Within 15 minutes of administration
C. 30 to 45 minutes after administration
COMPREHENSIVE REVIEW
1. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of Digoxin toxicity. Which of the following symptoms
should the nurse expect to find during the assessment?
A. Tachycardia and hypertension
B. Anorexia, nausea, and visual disturbances
C. Increased appetite and diarrhea
D. Hyperactivity and insomnia
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Early signs of digoxin toxicity include gastrointestinal symptoms
like anorexia, nausea, and vomiting, as well as neurological/visual disturbances such as
seeing yellow-green halos.
2. Which arterial blood gas (ABG) result would the nurse anticipate in a client with chronic
obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
A. pH 7.50, PaCO2 30 mmHg, HCO3 22 mEq/L
B. pH 7.33, PaCO2 55 mmHg, HCO3 29 mEq/L
,C. pH 7.35, PaCO2 40 mmHg, HCO3 24 mEq/L
D. pH 7.48, PaCO2 45 mmHg, HCO3 30 mEq/L
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: COPD leads to chronic CO2 retention, resulting in respiratory
acidosis. The body often compensates by increasing bicarbonate levels, leading to a
partially compensated respiratory acidosis profile.
3. The nurse is assigned to four clients. Which client should be assessed first?
A. A client with a history of heart failure reporting 1+ pitting edema
B. A client who had a hip replacement 2 days ago and needs assistance to the bathroom
C. A client with pneumonia who has an oxygen saturation of 94% on 2L NC
D. A client with new-onset chest pain and diaphoresis
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Using the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) priority
framework, the client with chest pain and diaphoresis may be experiencing an acute
myocardial infarction and requires immediate intervention.
4. A client’s potassium level is 3.2 mEq/L. Which clinical manifestation is most likely
associated with this finding?
A. Muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias
B. Hyperreflexia and muscle twitching
, C. Tall, peaked T-waves on ECG
D. Abdominal cramping and diarrhea
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Hypokalemia (potassium < 3.5 mEq/L) commonly causes muscle
weakness, leg cramps, and significant ECG changes or dysrhythmias.
5. Which personal protective equipment (PPE) should the nurse don before entering the room
of a client with Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in a wound?
A. Gown and gloves
B. Mask and goggles
C. N95 respirator and gloves
D. Gloves only
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: MRSA in a wound requires Contact Precautions, which include
the use of a gown and gloves to prevent transmission via direct or indirect contact.
6. A client is prescribed Lispro insulin. When should the nurse ensure the client’s meal is
available?
A. 1 hour after administration
B. Within 15 minutes of administration
C. 30 to 45 minutes after administration
