WGU D027 OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT STUDY GUIDE & EXAM
PREP 2026/2027 COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES || 100%
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Questions 1–50: Cardiovascular & Hypertension
1. What is the normal ejection fraction?
A) 35-45%
B) 45-50%
C) 55-60%
D) 65-70%
Answer C: 55-60%
Rationale: Normal ejection fraction is 55-60%; less than 50% indicates reduced
ejection fraction heart failure .
2. An ejection fraction of 50% is considered:
A) Reduced
B) Preserved
C) Borderline
D) Severely reduced
Answer B: Preserved
Rationale: Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF) is defined as an EF
≥ 50% .
,3. What is the gold standard laboratory test for heart failure?
A) Troponin
B) BNP (B-type natriuretic peptide)
C) CK-MB
D) CRP
Answer B: BNP (B-type natriuretic peptide)
Rationale: BNP is the gold standard lab test for heart failure; a result greater than
100 pg/mL indicates heart failure .
4. Symptoms of left-sided heart failure include: (Select all that apply)
A) Pulmonary congestion (crackles, orthopnea)
B) Jugular vein distention
C) S3 gallop
D) Peripheral edema
Answer A: , B, C
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure causes pulmonary congestion, JVD, and S3
murmurs. Peripheral edema is a sign of right-sided heart failure .
5. What are symptoms of right-sided heart failure?
A) Pulmonary crackles
B) Lower extremity edema and abdominal distension
C) Orthopnea
D) S3 gallop
Answer B: Lower extremity edema and abdominal distension
,Rationale: Right-sided heart failure causes systemic venous congestion leading to
lower extremity edema and abdominal distension .
6. What is the number one cause of right-sided heart failure?
A) Pulmonary embolism
B) Left-sided heart failure
C) Hypertension
D) COPD
Answer B: Left-sided heart failure
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure is the most common cause of right-sided heart
failure .
7. Which drug class is used as first-line treatment for uncomplicated
hypertension?
A) ACE inhibitors
B) Calcium channel blockers
C) Thiazide diuretics (hydrochlorothiazide)
D) Beta-blockers
Answer C: Thiazide diuretics (hydrochlorothiazide)
Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide is first-line for uncomplicated hypertension,
combined with lifestyle changes .
8. When should a patient take their first dose of antihypertensive medication?
A) Morning
B) At night
, C) With meals
D) Before exercise
Answer B: At night
Rationale: Antihypertensives should be taken at night to avoid orthostatic
hypotension .
9. What are side effects of ACE inhibitors?
A) Dry cough, angioedema, and hyperkalemia
B) Tachycardia and palpitations
C) Weight gain and edema
D) Photosensitivity
Answer A: Dry cough, angioedema, and hyperkalemia
Rationale: ACE inhibitors commonly cause dry cough, angioedema, and
hyperkalemia; they are contraindicated in pregnancy .
10. Which type of antihypertensive should NOT be given to patients with
asthma?
A) ACE inhibitors
B) ARBs
C) Nonselective beta-blockers (—lol)
D) Calcium channel blockers
Answer C: Nonselective beta-blockers (—lol)
Rationale: Nonselective beta-blockers block both beta-1 and beta-2 receptors; beta-2
receptors in the lungs cause bronchoconstriction, worsening asthma .
PREP 2026/2027 COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES || 100%
GUARANTEED PASS!! LATEST VERSION
Questions 1–50: Cardiovascular & Hypertension
1. What is the normal ejection fraction?
A) 35-45%
B) 45-50%
C) 55-60%
D) 65-70%
Answer C: 55-60%
Rationale: Normal ejection fraction is 55-60%; less than 50% indicates reduced
ejection fraction heart failure .
2. An ejection fraction of 50% is considered:
A) Reduced
B) Preserved
C) Borderline
D) Severely reduced
Answer B: Preserved
Rationale: Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF) is defined as an EF
≥ 50% .
,3. What is the gold standard laboratory test for heart failure?
A) Troponin
B) BNP (B-type natriuretic peptide)
C) CK-MB
D) CRP
Answer B: BNP (B-type natriuretic peptide)
Rationale: BNP is the gold standard lab test for heart failure; a result greater than
100 pg/mL indicates heart failure .
4. Symptoms of left-sided heart failure include: (Select all that apply)
A) Pulmonary congestion (crackles, orthopnea)
B) Jugular vein distention
C) S3 gallop
D) Peripheral edema
Answer A: , B, C
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure causes pulmonary congestion, JVD, and S3
murmurs. Peripheral edema is a sign of right-sided heart failure .
5. What are symptoms of right-sided heart failure?
A) Pulmonary crackles
B) Lower extremity edema and abdominal distension
C) Orthopnea
D) S3 gallop
Answer B: Lower extremity edema and abdominal distension
,Rationale: Right-sided heart failure causes systemic venous congestion leading to
lower extremity edema and abdominal distension .
6. What is the number one cause of right-sided heart failure?
A) Pulmonary embolism
B) Left-sided heart failure
C) Hypertension
D) COPD
Answer B: Left-sided heart failure
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure is the most common cause of right-sided heart
failure .
7. Which drug class is used as first-line treatment for uncomplicated
hypertension?
A) ACE inhibitors
B) Calcium channel blockers
C) Thiazide diuretics (hydrochlorothiazide)
D) Beta-blockers
Answer C: Thiazide diuretics (hydrochlorothiazide)
Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide is first-line for uncomplicated hypertension,
combined with lifestyle changes .
8. When should a patient take their first dose of antihypertensive medication?
A) Morning
B) At night
, C) With meals
D) Before exercise
Answer B: At night
Rationale: Antihypertensives should be taken at night to avoid orthostatic
hypotension .
9. What are side effects of ACE inhibitors?
A) Dry cough, angioedema, and hyperkalemia
B) Tachycardia and palpitations
C) Weight gain and edema
D) Photosensitivity
Answer A: Dry cough, angioedema, and hyperkalemia
Rationale: ACE inhibitors commonly cause dry cough, angioedema, and
hyperkalemia; they are contraindicated in pregnancy .
10. Which type of antihypertensive should NOT be given to patients with
asthma?
A) ACE inhibitors
B) ARBs
C) Nonselective beta-blockers (—lol)
D) Calcium channel blockers
Answer C: Nonselective beta-blockers (—lol)
Rationale: Nonselective beta-blockers block both beta-1 and beta-2 receptors; beta-2
receptors in the lungs cause bronchoconstriction, worsening asthma .
