NSG 3250 EXAM 3 NURSING PRACTICE-ADULT HEALTH EXAM – QUESTIONS
AND ANSWERS | VERIFIED AND WELL DETAILED ANSWERS |EXAM TESTBANK |
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2026/2027
Core Domains
• Cardiovascular Disorders
• Respiratory Disorders
• Neurological Disorders
• Gastrointestinal Disorders
• Endocrine and Metabolic Disorders
• Renal and Urinary Disorders
• Musculoskeletal Disorders
• Hematological and Immunological Disorders
• Pain Management
• Perioperative Nursing
Introduction
This comprehensive examination is designed to rigorously assess the nursing
student's knowledge and clinical reasoning skills in adult health nursing. It
encompasses a wide range of foundational theories and applied professional
knowledge, integrating regulatory, legal, and ethical standards into realistic patient
scenarios. The exam utilizes a multiple-choice format with scenario-based questions
to evaluate critical thinking, decision-making abilities, and the application of
evidence-based practice in complex clinical situations. Success on this exam
demonstrates readiness to provide safe, competent, and holistic care to adult
patients across various healthcare settings, emphasizing prioritization and effective
intervention.
,SECTION ONE: QUESTIONS 1-50
1. A patient with a history of heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which
assessment finding would indicate the medication is having the desired
therapeutic effect?
A. Decreased jugular venous distension
B. Increased peripheral edema
C. Weight gain of 2 kg in 24 hours
D. Crackles auscultated in the lung bases
🟢 Correct Answer: A. Decreased jugular venous distension
🔴 Explanation: Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to reduce fluid volume
overload in heart failure. A decrease in jugular venous distension indicates a
reduction in central venous pressure and is a positive sign of effective diuresis.
The other options indicate worsening fluid overload.
2. A nurse is caring for a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome
(ARDS). Which ventilator setting would the nurse anticipate being adjusted to
improve oxygenation?
A. Tidal volume
B. Respiratory rate
C. Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)
D. Fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO2)
🟢 Correct Answer: C. Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)
🔴 Explanation: PEEP helps to recruit and stabilize alveoli, preventing collapse
and improving gas exchange in ARDS. While FiO2 is also adjusted, PEEP is a
primary strategy to improve oxygenation by increasing functional residual
capacity and reducing intrapulmonary shunting.
,3. A patient is being treated for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The nurse
recognizes that which type of insulin should be administered via continuous
intravenous infusion?
A. NPH insulin
B. Insulin glargine
C. Regular insulin
D. Insulin detemir
🟢 Correct Answer: C. Regular insulin
🔴 Explanation: Regular insulin is a short-acting insulin that is the only type
recommended for intravenous use, as it can be titrated quickly to manage rapidly
changing blood glucose levels in DKA. NPH, glargine, and detemir are longer-
acting insulins and are not given IV.
4. A patient post-operative day 1 from a total knee replacement reports severe
pain that is not relieved by the prescribed opioid. The nurse suspects the
patient may be developing a complication. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Administer a higher dose of the opioid as prescribed PRN.
B. Assess the surgical site for signs of infection or compartment syndrome.
C. Encourage the patient to ambulate to relieve stiffness.
D. Apply a cold pack to the knee to reduce inflammation.
🟢 Correct Answer: B. Assess the surgical site for signs of infection or
compartment syndrome.
🔴 Explanation: Unrelieved severe pain that is disproportionate to the injury can
be an early sign of compartment syndrome or infection. The priority is to assess
the patient further to rule out these serious complications before administering
more analgesia. The nurse should assess for pain, pallor, pulselessness,
paresthesia, and paralysis.
, 5. A patient with chronic kidney disease is placed on a low-potassium diet.
Which food choice indicates that the patient understands the dietary teaching?
A. A banana
B. An orange
C. A baked potato
D. A slice of apple pie
🟢 Correct Answer: D. A slice of apple pie
🔴 Explanation: Apples are low in potassium. Bananas, oranges, and potatoes are
high-potassium foods and should be avoided or limited on a low-potassium diet.
6. A patient is experiencing an acute asthma exacerbation. The nurse
administers a nebulized bronchodilator. Which finding indicates the treatment
is effective?
A. Decreased heart rate
B. Increased peak expiratory flow rate
C. Increased respiratory rate
D. Decreased oxygen saturation
🟢 Correct Answer: B. Increased peak expiratory flow rate
🔴 Explanation: An increased peak expiratory flow rate indicates improved airflow
and is a direct measure of bronchodilator effectiveness. The patient's heart rate
should decrease as respiratory effort improves, but the direct indicator of
effectiveness is improved airflow.
7. A patient on warfarin therapy has an INR of 5.2. The patient is not actively
bleeding. What is the most appropriate initial nursing action?
A. Administer vitamin K as prescribed.
B. Hold the next dose of warfarin and notify the healthcare provider.
AND ANSWERS | VERIFIED AND WELL DETAILED ANSWERS |EXAM TESTBANK |
PLUS RATIONALES | DOWNLOAD AND PASS | LATEST EXAM UPDATE
2026/2027
Core Domains
• Cardiovascular Disorders
• Respiratory Disorders
• Neurological Disorders
• Gastrointestinal Disorders
• Endocrine and Metabolic Disorders
• Renal and Urinary Disorders
• Musculoskeletal Disorders
• Hematological and Immunological Disorders
• Pain Management
• Perioperative Nursing
Introduction
This comprehensive examination is designed to rigorously assess the nursing
student's knowledge and clinical reasoning skills in adult health nursing. It
encompasses a wide range of foundational theories and applied professional
knowledge, integrating regulatory, legal, and ethical standards into realistic patient
scenarios. The exam utilizes a multiple-choice format with scenario-based questions
to evaluate critical thinking, decision-making abilities, and the application of
evidence-based practice in complex clinical situations. Success on this exam
demonstrates readiness to provide safe, competent, and holistic care to adult
patients across various healthcare settings, emphasizing prioritization and effective
intervention.
,SECTION ONE: QUESTIONS 1-50
1. A patient with a history of heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which
assessment finding would indicate the medication is having the desired
therapeutic effect?
A. Decreased jugular venous distension
B. Increased peripheral edema
C. Weight gain of 2 kg in 24 hours
D. Crackles auscultated in the lung bases
🟢 Correct Answer: A. Decreased jugular venous distension
🔴 Explanation: Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to reduce fluid volume
overload in heart failure. A decrease in jugular venous distension indicates a
reduction in central venous pressure and is a positive sign of effective diuresis.
The other options indicate worsening fluid overload.
2. A nurse is caring for a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome
(ARDS). Which ventilator setting would the nurse anticipate being adjusted to
improve oxygenation?
A. Tidal volume
B. Respiratory rate
C. Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)
D. Fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO2)
🟢 Correct Answer: C. Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)
🔴 Explanation: PEEP helps to recruit and stabilize alveoli, preventing collapse
and improving gas exchange in ARDS. While FiO2 is also adjusted, PEEP is a
primary strategy to improve oxygenation by increasing functional residual
capacity and reducing intrapulmonary shunting.
,3. A patient is being treated for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The nurse
recognizes that which type of insulin should be administered via continuous
intravenous infusion?
A. NPH insulin
B. Insulin glargine
C. Regular insulin
D. Insulin detemir
🟢 Correct Answer: C. Regular insulin
🔴 Explanation: Regular insulin is a short-acting insulin that is the only type
recommended for intravenous use, as it can be titrated quickly to manage rapidly
changing blood glucose levels in DKA. NPH, glargine, and detemir are longer-
acting insulins and are not given IV.
4. A patient post-operative day 1 from a total knee replacement reports severe
pain that is not relieved by the prescribed opioid. The nurse suspects the
patient may be developing a complication. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Administer a higher dose of the opioid as prescribed PRN.
B. Assess the surgical site for signs of infection or compartment syndrome.
C. Encourage the patient to ambulate to relieve stiffness.
D. Apply a cold pack to the knee to reduce inflammation.
🟢 Correct Answer: B. Assess the surgical site for signs of infection or
compartment syndrome.
🔴 Explanation: Unrelieved severe pain that is disproportionate to the injury can
be an early sign of compartment syndrome or infection. The priority is to assess
the patient further to rule out these serious complications before administering
more analgesia. The nurse should assess for pain, pallor, pulselessness,
paresthesia, and paralysis.
, 5. A patient with chronic kidney disease is placed on a low-potassium diet.
Which food choice indicates that the patient understands the dietary teaching?
A. A banana
B. An orange
C. A baked potato
D. A slice of apple pie
🟢 Correct Answer: D. A slice of apple pie
🔴 Explanation: Apples are low in potassium. Bananas, oranges, and potatoes are
high-potassium foods and should be avoided or limited on a low-potassium diet.
6. A patient is experiencing an acute asthma exacerbation. The nurse
administers a nebulized bronchodilator. Which finding indicates the treatment
is effective?
A. Decreased heart rate
B. Increased peak expiratory flow rate
C. Increased respiratory rate
D. Decreased oxygen saturation
🟢 Correct Answer: B. Increased peak expiratory flow rate
🔴 Explanation: An increased peak expiratory flow rate indicates improved airflow
and is a direct measure of bronchodilator effectiveness. The patient's heart rate
should decrease as respiratory effort improves, but the direct indicator of
effectiveness is improved airflow.
7. A patient on warfarin therapy has an INR of 5.2. The patient is not actively
bleeding. What is the most appropriate initial nursing action?
A. Administer vitamin K as prescribed.
B. Hold the next dose of warfarin and notify the healthcare provider.