NSG 3280 EXAM 4 2026-2027
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FOR NURSES I
EXAM PREP | VERIFIED Q&A | GALEN
COLLEGE OF NURSING
1. A 24-year-old female presents to the urgent care clinic
complaining of lower abdominal pain, cervical motion
tenderness, and purulent vaginal discharge. Culture results
confirm an infection. Which pathogen is most commonly
responsible for this presentation? A. Treponema pallidum
B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C. Escherichia coli
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the leading causative
organism of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), which manifests
with lower abdominal pain and cervical motion tenderness. Left
untreated, it can lead to tubal scarring and infertility.
2. A patient presents with a non-tender, hard genital ulcer
(chancre) three weeks after sexual contact with a new
partner. Which stage and causative agent are associated
,with this lesion? A. Secondary syphilis caused by Chlamydia
trachomatis
B. Primary syphilis caused by Treponema pallidum
C. Latent syphilis caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D. Tertiary syphilis caused by Human Papillomavirus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The painless ulceration known as a chancre is the
primary lesion of syphilis, caused by the spirochete Treponema
pallidum. It appears at the site of inoculation during the initial
stage.
3. A nurse is providing health teaching to a community
group regarding human papillomavirus (HPV) infection.
Which long-term complication associated with HPV should
be emphasized? A. Endometrial hyperplasia
B. Cervical dysplasia and carcinoma
C. Pelvic inflammatory disease
D. Ovarian cyst formation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: High-risk strains of HPV (such as HPV 16 and 18)
are strongly linked to the development of cervical dysplasia and
cervical cancer. Regular screening via Pap smears detects
cellular changes early.
,4. A patient diagnosed with syphilis asks the nurse why
treatment is necessary if they currently have no symptoms.
The nurse's response is based on the understanding that
syphilis: A. Remains localized to the skin throughout its entire
course
B. Has a long, asymptomatic latent phase before progressing to
systemic failure
C. Self-resolves completely without pharmacological therapy
after 6 weeks
D. Only causes symptoms when co-infected with HIV
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Syphilis is characterized by a prolonged,
asymptomatic latent period. If left untreated, it progresses to
tertiary syphilis, causing severe cardiovascular and central
nervous system degeneration.
5. Which pharmacological agent is considered the first-line
therapy for all stages of syphilis? A. Doxycycline orally for 5
days
B. Penicillin G parenterally
C. Acyclovir intravenously
D. Metronidazole orally
, Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Parenteral Penicillin G remains the drug of choice
for treating Treponema pallidum infections at any stage.
Doxycycline is typically reserved as an alternative for penicillin-
allergic patients.
6. A 22-year-old male presents with severe dysuria and
thick, yellow-green purulent urethral discharge. Microscopic
evaluation reveals Gram-negative intracellular diplococci.
What is the primary diagnosis? A. Chlamydial urethritis
B. Acute gonorrhea
C. Primary syphilis
D. Non-gonococcal urethritis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Classic clinical signs of male gonococcal urethritis
include dysuria and copious purulent discharge containing
Gram-negative diplococci.
7. An infant born via spontaneous vaginal delivery develops
bilateral conjunctivitis with corneal opacity 10 days post-
birth. The nurse suspects transmission of which maternal
organism during delivery? A. Treponema pallidum
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FOR NURSES I
EXAM PREP | VERIFIED Q&A | GALEN
COLLEGE OF NURSING
1. A 24-year-old female presents to the urgent care clinic
complaining of lower abdominal pain, cervical motion
tenderness, and purulent vaginal discharge. Culture results
confirm an infection. Which pathogen is most commonly
responsible for this presentation? A. Treponema pallidum
B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C. Escherichia coli
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the leading causative
organism of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), which manifests
with lower abdominal pain and cervical motion tenderness. Left
untreated, it can lead to tubal scarring and infertility.
2. A patient presents with a non-tender, hard genital ulcer
(chancre) three weeks after sexual contact with a new
partner. Which stage and causative agent are associated
,with this lesion? A. Secondary syphilis caused by Chlamydia
trachomatis
B. Primary syphilis caused by Treponema pallidum
C. Latent syphilis caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D. Tertiary syphilis caused by Human Papillomavirus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The painless ulceration known as a chancre is the
primary lesion of syphilis, caused by the spirochete Treponema
pallidum. It appears at the site of inoculation during the initial
stage.
3. A nurse is providing health teaching to a community
group regarding human papillomavirus (HPV) infection.
Which long-term complication associated with HPV should
be emphasized? A. Endometrial hyperplasia
B. Cervical dysplasia and carcinoma
C. Pelvic inflammatory disease
D. Ovarian cyst formation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: High-risk strains of HPV (such as HPV 16 and 18)
are strongly linked to the development of cervical dysplasia and
cervical cancer. Regular screening via Pap smears detects
cellular changes early.
,4. A patient diagnosed with syphilis asks the nurse why
treatment is necessary if they currently have no symptoms.
The nurse's response is based on the understanding that
syphilis: A. Remains localized to the skin throughout its entire
course
B. Has a long, asymptomatic latent phase before progressing to
systemic failure
C. Self-resolves completely without pharmacological therapy
after 6 weeks
D. Only causes symptoms when co-infected with HIV
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Syphilis is characterized by a prolonged,
asymptomatic latent period. If left untreated, it progresses to
tertiary syphilis, causing severe cardiovascular and central
nervous system degeneration.
5. Which pharmacological agent is considered the first-line
therapy for all stages of syphilis? A. Doxycycline orally for 5
days
B. Penicillin G parenterally
C. Acyclovir intravenously
D. Metronidazole orally
, Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Parenteral Penicillin G remains the drug of choice
for treating Treponema pallidum infections at any stage.
Doxycycline is typically reserved as an alternative for penicillin-
allergic patients.
6. A 22-year-old male presents with severe dysuria and
thick, yellow-green purulent urethral discharge. Microscopic
evaluation reveals Gram-negative intracellular diplococci.
What is the primary diagnosis? A. Chlamydial urethritis
B. Acute gonorrhea
C. Primary syphilis
D. Non-gonococcal urethritis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Classic clinical signs of male gonococcal urethritis
include dysuria and copious purulent discharge containing
Gram-negative diplococci.
7. An infant born via spontaneous vaginal delivery develops
bilateral conjunctivitis with corneal opacity 10 days post-
birth. The nurse suspects transmission of which maternal
organism during delivery? A. Treponema pallidum
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
