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NR 602 Final Exam Study Guide + Bonus of most tested
,questions with multi choices and rationale –
Chamberlain College of Nursing ALL Questions &
Answers , Verified A+ (Verified Q&A Pack)
2026/2027 Frequently Most Tested Questions and
100% Accurate From Past papers | Graded A+ ,
Reviewed and Updated | 100% Guarantee Pass |
Latest Exam and Newest Version!!!
Question:
Which one best describes lesions associated with condyloma acuminatum?
a. Verruciform
b. Plaque-like
c. Vesicular
d. Bullous
✔️ Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Condyloma acuminatum (genital warts) are caused by HPV and appear as verruciform
(wart-like) lesions. They are not plaque-like, vesicular, or bullous. NCLEX focus: sexually
transmitted infections and dermatologic manifestations.
,A 39-year-old female has completed a course of amoxicillin for strep throat. LMP was 2
weeks ago and normal. On exam, there is erythema of external genitalia with a small
amount of white discharge. Microscopic wet prep reveals few clue cells but many
budding hyphae. No WBCs. Which would be the most appropriate treatment?
a. Metronidazole 500 mg BID × 7 days
b. OTC hydrocortisone 1% cream TID
c. Fluconazole 150 mg × 1 dose
d. Erythromycin 500 mg TID × 10 days
✔️ Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
The presence of budding hyphae on wet prep indicates vulvovaginal candidiasis (yeast
infection), which is commonly triggered by antibiotic use. Fluconazole 150 mg single
dose is the appropriate treatment. Metronidazole treats bacterial vaginosis or
trichomoniasis. Hydrocortisone is not curative. Erythromycin is an antibiotic that would
worsen the fungal overgrowth. NCLEX focus: vaginal infections and pharmacologic
treatment.
A woman complains of vaginal itching and white discharge. She is in good health except
for recent antibiotics for strep throat. Pelvic exam reveals tender vulvovaginal area with
edema and non-malodorous white patches. Which is the most likely cause?
, a. Bacterial vaginosis
b. Trichomonas
c. Lactobacillus overgrowth
d. Candidiasis
✔️ Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Candidiasis presents with pruritus, white discharge, and inflammation, often following
antibiotic use. Bacterial vaginosis has a fishy odor and clue cells. Trichomonas has a
frothy, malodorous discharge. Lactobacillus overgrowth is not a typical infection. NCLEX
focus: vaginitis and differential diagnosis.
An 18-year-old female complains of secondary amenorrhea. On exam, secondary sex
characteristics and genitalia are normal. Pregnancy is ruled out. What would necessitate
further evaluation?
a. Elevated blood cholesterol levels
b. Androgen deficiency
c. Galactorrhea
d. Hirsutism
✔️ Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Galactorrhea suggests hyperprolactinemia, which can cause secondary amenorrhea and
requires further evaluation. Cholesterol levels, androgen deficiency, and hirsutism are
less directly related to amenorrhea in this context. NCLEX focus: amenorrhea and
endocrine evaluation.
BANK
NR 602 Final Exam Study Guide + Bonus of most tested
,questions with multi choices and rationale –
Chamberlain College of Nursing ALL Questions &
Answers , Verified A+ (Verified Q&A Pack)
2026/2027 Frequently Most Tested Questions and
100% Accurate From Past papers | Graded A+ ,
Reviewed and Updated | 100% Guarantee Pass |
Latest Exam and Newest Version!!!
Question:
Which one best describes lesions associated with condyloma acuminatum?
a. Verruciform
b. Plaque-like
c. Vesicular
d. Bullous
✔️ Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Condyloma acuminatum (genital warts) are caused by HPV and appear as verruciform
(wart-like) lesions. They are not plaque-like, vesicular, or bullous. NCLEX focus: sexually
transmitted infections and dermatologic manifestations.
,A 39-year-old female has completed a course of amoxicillin for strep throat. LMP was 2
weeks ago and normal. On exam, there is erythema of external genitalia with a small
amount of white discharge. Microscopic wet prep reveals few clue cells but many
budding hyphae. No WBCs. Which would be the most appropriate treatment?
a. Metronidazole 500 mg BID × 7 days
b. OTC hydrocortisone 1% cream TID
c. Fluconazole 150 mg × 1 dose
d. Erythromycin 500 mg TID × 10 days
✔️ Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
The presence of budding hyphae on wet prep indicates vulvovaginal candidiasis (yeast
infection), which is commonly triggered by antibiotic use. Fluconazole 150 mg single
dose is the appropriate treatment. Metronidazole treats bacterial vaginosis or
trichomoniasis. Hydrocortisone is not curative. Erythromycin is an antibiotic that would
worsen the fungal overgrowth. NCLEX focus: vaginal infections and pharmacologic
treatment.
A woman complains of vaginal itching and white discharge. She is in good health except
for recent antibiotics for strep throat. Pelvic exam reveals tender vulvovaginal area with
edema and non-malodorous white patches. Which is the most likely cause?
, a. Bacterial vaginosis
b. Trichomonas
c. Lactobacillus overgrowth
d. Candidiasis
✔️ Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Candidiasis presents with pruritus, white discharge, and inflammation, often following
antibiotic use. Bacterial vaginosis has a fishy odor and clue cells. Trichomonas has a
frothy, malodorous discharge. Lactobacillus overgrowth is not a typical infection. NCLEX
focus: vaginitis and differential diagnosis.
An 18-year-old female complains of secondary amenorrhea. On exam, secondary sex
characteristics and genitalia are normal. Pregnancy is ruled out. What would necessitate
further evaluation?
a. Elevated blood cholesterol levels
b. Androgen deficiency
c. Galactorrhea
d. Hirsutism
✔️ Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Galactorrhea suggests hyperprolactinemia, which can cause secondary amenorrhea and
requires further evaluation. Cholesterol levels, androgen deficiency, and hirsutism are
less directly related to amenorrhea in this context. NCLEX focus: amenorrhea and
endocrine evaluation.
