NBCRNA NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION (NCE)
COMPLETE PRACTICE EXAM 200 QUESTIONS WITH
VERIFIED ANSWERS & RATIONALES LATEST UPDATE
2026/2027 | COMPREHENSIVE EXAM PREPARATION
1. Which of the following agents is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker?
A) Rocuronium
B) Succinylcholine
C) Vecuronium
D) Cisatracurium
Answer B: Succinylcholine
Rationale: Succinylcholine is the only depolarizing neuromuscular blocker; all
others listed are non-depolarizing.
2. What is the mechanism of action of succinylcholine?
A) Competitively blocks the nicotinic receptor
B) Binds to and activates the nicotinic receptor, causing persistent depolarization
C) Inhibits acetylcholinesterase
D) Blocks muscarinic receptors
Answer B: Binds to and activates the nicotinic receptor, causing persistent
depolarization
Rationale: Succinylcholine depolarizes the motor endplate, causing fasciculations
followed by flaccid paralysis due to receptor desensitization.
,3. Which of the following is a contraindication to the use of succinylcholine?
A) Asthma
B) Malignant hyperthermia susceptibility
C) Hypertension
D) Diabetes mellitus
Answer B: Malignant hyperthermia susceptibility
Rationale: Succinylcholine is a potent trigger for malignant hyperthermia in
susceptible patients. It is contraindicated in those with MH susceptibility.
4. What is the primary treatment for malignant hyperthermia?
A) Amiodarone
B) Dantrolene
C) Atropine
D) Epinephrine
Answer B: Dantrolene
Rationale: Dantrolene sodium is the specific antagonist that reduces calcium
release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, treating MH.
5. Which inhalation anesthetic agent is associated with the greatest risk of
malignant hyperthermia?
A) Nitrous oxide
,B) Sevoflurane
C) Halothane
D) Isoflurane
Answer C: Halothane
Rationale: Halothane is a potent trigger of malignant hyperthermia, though
sevoflurane and desflurane can also trigger it.
6. Which of the following is a sign of malignant hyperthermia?
A) Bradycardia
B) Tachycardia and hyperthermia
C) Hypercapnia and hypothermia
D) Hypertension and bradypnea
Answer B: Tachycardia and hyperthermia
Rationale: Early signs include tachycardia, muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, and
metabolic acidosis.
7. Which volatile anesthetic is most commonly used for inhalation induction
in children?
A) Desflurane
B) Sevoflurane
C) Isoflurane
D) Halothane
Answer B: Sevoflurane
, Rationale: Sevoflurane is the agent of choice for inhalation induction in children
due to its low blood:gas solubility and pleasant odor.
8. What is the blood:gas partition coefficient of sevoflurane?
A) 0.5
B) 0.69
C) 1.4
D) 2.5
Answer B: 0.69
Rationale: Sevoflurane has a low blood:gas partition coefficient (0.69), allowing
for rapid induction and emergence.
9. Which local anesthetic is most likely to cause methemoglobinemia?
A) Lidocaine
B) Bupivacaine
C) Prilocaine
D) Ropivacaine
Answer C: Prilocaine
Rationale: Prilocaine is associated with methemoglobinemia, especially at higher
doses; monitor for cyanosis.
10. What is the maximum recommended dose of lidocaine with epinephrine?
COMPLETE PRACTICE EXAM 200 QUESTIONS WITH
VERIFIED ANSWERS & RATIONALES LATEST UPDATE
2026/2027 | COMPREHENSIVE EXAM PREPARATION
1. Which of the following agents is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker?
A) Rocuronium
B) Succinylcholine
C) Vecuronium
D) Cisatracurium
Answer B: Succinylcholine
Rationale: Succinylcholine is the only depolarizing neuromuscular blocker; all
others listed are non-depolarizing.
2. What is the mechanism of action of succinylcholine?
A) Competitively blocks the nicotinic receptor
B) Binds to and activates the nicotinic receptor, causing persistent depolarization
C) Inhibits acetylcholinesterase
D) Blocks muscarinic receptors
Answer B: Binds to and activates the nicotinic receptor, causing persistent
depolarization
Rationale: Succinylcholine depolarizes the motor endplate, causing fasciculations
followed by flaccid paralysis due to receptor desensitization.
,3. Which of the following is a contraindication to the use of succinylcholine?
A) Asthma
B) Malignant hyperthermia susceptibility
C) Hypertension
D) Diabetes mellitus
Answer B: Malignant hyperthermia susceptibility
Rationale: Succinylcholine is a potent trigger for malignant hyperthermia in
susceptible patients. It is contraindicated in those with MH susceptibility.
4. What is the primary treatment for malignant hyperthermia?
A) Amiodarone
B) Dantrolene
C) Atropine
D) Epinephrine
Answer B: Dantrolene
Rationale: Dantrolene sodium is the specific antagonist that reduces calcium
release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, treating MH.
5. Which inhalation anesthetic agent is associated with the greatest risk of
malignant hyperthermia?
A) Nitrous oxide
,B) Sevoflurane
C) Halothane
D) Isoflurane
Answer C: Halothane
Rationale: Halothane is a potent trigger of malignant hyperthermia, though
sevoflurane and desflurane can also trigger it.
6. Which of the following is a sign of malignant hyperthermia?
A) Bradycardia
B) Tachycardia and hyperthermia
C) Hypercapnia and hypothermia
D) Hypertension and bradypnea
Answer B: Tachycardia and hyperthermia
Rationale: Early signs include tachycardia, muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, and
metabolic acidosis.
7. Which volatile anesthetic is most commonly used for inhalation induction
in children?
A) Desflurane
B) Sevoflurane
C) Isoflurane
D) Halothane
Answer B: Sevoflurane
, Rationale: Sevoflurane is the agent of choice for inhalation induction in children
due to its low blood:gas solubility and pleasant odor.
8. What is the blood:gas partition coefficient of sevoflurane?
A) 0.5
B) 0.69
C) 1.4
D) 2.5
Answer B: 0.69
Rationale: Sevoflurane has a low blood:gas partition coefficient (0.69), allowing
for rapid induction and emergence.
9. Which local anesthetic is most likely to cause methemoglobinemia?
A) Lidocaine
B) Bupivacaine
C) Prilocaine
D) Ropivacaine
Answer C: Prilocaine
Rationale: Prilocaine is associated with methemoglobinemia, especially at higher
doses; monitor for cyanosis.
10. What is the maximum recommended dose of lidocaine with epinephrine?
