NBCRNA REVIEW 2026/2027 ACTUAL COMPLETE
REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
VERIFIED ANSWERS (100% CORRECTLY SOLVED)
GRADED A+ / LATEST UPDATE
1. What is the most reliable indicator of proper endotracheal tube
placement?
A) Bilateral breath sounds
B) Chest rise and fall
C) End-tidal CO₂ detection (capnography)
D) Oxygen saturation
Answer C: End-tidal CO₂ detection (capnography)
Rationale: Capnography confirms tracheal placement immediately; bilateral
breath sounds and chest rise can be falsely reassuring in esophageal intubation.
2. The Mallampati classification is used to predict:
A) Difficult mask ventilation
B) Difficult intubation
C) Aspiration risk
D) Hemodynamic response to laryngoscopy
Answer B: Difficult intubation
Rationale: Mallampati score correlates with ease of laryngoscopy; Class III or IV
predicts a more difficult intubation.
,3. Which is the most common cause of upper airway obstruction in an
unconscious patient?
A) Laryngospasm
B) Foreign body
C) Tongue obstruction
D) Bronchospasm
Answer C: Tongue obstruction
Rationale: The tongue falls back against the posterior pharyngeal wall; managed
with jaw thrust or chin lift and placement of an oral/nasal airway.
4. What is the appropriate size for an oropharyngeal airway in an average
adult female?
A) Size 3 (80 mm)
B) Size 4 (90 mm)
C) Size 5 (100 mm)
D) Size 6 (110 mm)
Answer B: Size 4 (90 mm)
Rationale: Size by measuring from corner of mouth to angle of mandible; average
adult female is size 4 (90 mm).
,5. Which neuromuscular blocking agent is preferred for rapid sequence
intubation in a patient with hyperkalemia?
A) Succinylcholine
B) Rocuronium
C) Vecuronium
D) Atracurium
Answer B: Rocuronium
Rationale: Succinylcholine is contraindicated in hyperkalemia (can cause fatal K+
increase); rocuronium is a non-depolarizing NMBA that does not raise K+.
6. What is the primary mechanism of action of propofol?
A) NMDA receptor antagonism
B) GABA receptor potentiation
C) Dopamine receptor blockade
D) Alpha-1 agonism
Answer B: GABA receptor potentiation
Rationale: Propofol enhances GABA-mediated inhibitory neurotransmission,
producing sedation and hypnosis.
7. Which inhalation anesthetic has the lowest blood-gas partition coefficient?
A) Isoflurane
B) Sevoflurane
C) Desflurane
, D) Halothane
Answer C: Desflurane
Rationale: Desflurane’s low blood solubility allows rapid induction and
emergence.
8. The primary determinant of oxygen delivery (DO₂) is:
A) Respiratory rate
B) Hemoglobin concentration and cardiac output
C) Tidal volume only
D) Temperature
Answer B: Hemoglobin concentration and cardiac output
Rationale: Oxygen delivery depends primarily on cardiac output and arterial
oxygen content.
9. Which electrolyte abnormality increases the risk of ventricular
dysrhythmias?
A) Hypernatremia
B) Hypercalcemia
C) Hypokalemia
D) Hypermagnesemia
Answer C: Hypokalemia
Rationale: Low potassium levels increase myocardial excitability and risk of
arrhythmias.
REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
VERIFIED ANSWERS (100% CORRECTLY SOLVED)
GRADED A+ / LATEST UPDATE
1. What is the most reliable indicator of proper endotracheal tube
placement?
A) Bilateral breath sounds
B) Chest rise and fall
C) End-tidal CO₂ detection (capnography)
D) Oxygen saturation
Answer C: End-tidal CO₂ detection (capnography)
Rationale: Capnography confirms tracheal placement immediately; bilateral
breath sounds and chest rise can be falsely reassuring in esophageal intubation.
2. The Mallampati classification is used to predict:
A) Difficult mask ventilation
B) Difficult intubation
C) Aspiration risk
D) Hemodynamic response to laryngoscopy
Answer B: Difficult intubation
Rationale: Mallampati score correlates with ease of laryngoscopy; Class III or IV
predicts a more difficult intubation.
,3. Which is the most common cause of upper airway obstruction in an
unconscious patient?
A) Laryngospasm
B) Foreign body
C) Tongue obstruction
D) Bronchospasm
Answer C: Tongue obstruction
Rationale: The tongue falls back against the posterior pharyngeal wall; managed
with jaw thrust or chin lift and placement of an oral/nasal airway.
4. What is the appropriate size for an oropharyngeal airway in an average
adult female?
A) Size 3 (80 mm)
B) Size 4 (90 mm)
C) Size 5 (100 mm)
D) Size 6 (110 mm)
Answer B: Size 4 (90 mm)
Rationale: Size by measuring from corner of mouth to angle of mandible; average
adult female is size 4 (90 mm).
,5. Which neuromuscular blocking agent is preferred for rapid sequence
intubation in a patient with hyperkalemia?
A) Succinylcholine
B) Rocuronium
C) Vecuronium
D) Atracurium
Answer B: Rocuronium
Rationale: Succinylcholine is contraindicated in hyperkalemia (can cause fatal K+
increase); rocuronium is a non-depolarizing NMBA that does not raise K+.
6. What is the primary mechanism of action of propofol?
A) NMDA receptor antagonism
B) GABA receptor potentiation
C) Dopamine receptor blockade
D) Alpha-1 agonism
Answer B: GABA receptor potentiation
Rationale: Propofol enhances GABA-mediated inhibitory neurotransmission,
producing sedation and hypnosis.
7. Which inhalation anesthetic has the lowest blood-gas partition coefficient?
A) Isoflurane
B) Sevoflurane
C) Desflurane
, D) Halothane
Answer C: Desflurane
Rationale: Desflurane’s low blood solubility allows rapid induction and
emergence.
8. The primary determinant of oxygen delivery (DO₂) is:
A) Respiratory rate
B) Hemoglobin concentration and cardiac output
C) Tidal volume only
D) Temperature
Answer B: Hemoglobin concentration and cardiac output
Rationale: Oxygen delivery depends primarily on cardiac output and arterial
oxygen content.
9. Which electrolyte abnormality increases the risk of ventricular
dysrhythmias?
A) Hypernatremia
B) Hypercalcemia
C) Hypokalemia
D) Hypermagnesemia
Answer C: Hypokalemia
Rationale: Low potassium levels increase myocardial excitability and risk of
arrhythmias.
