Maternal Newborn OB Final Exam Questions
ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK 200 QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY
GRADED A+||NEWEST VERSION
2026/2027 Frequently Most Tested Questions and 100%
Accurate From Past papers | Graded A+ , Reviewed and
Updated | 100% Guarantee Pass | Latest Exam and
Newest Version!!!
A nurse is caring for a postpartum client who is experiencing excessive bleeding. What is
the priority nursing action?
a. Administer oxytocin
b. Massage the fundus
c. Assess vital signs
d. Insert Foley catheter
✔️ Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Postpartum hemorrhage is most commonly caused by uterine atony, where
the uterus fails to contract effectively after delivery. The immediate priority is to massage
the fundus to stimulate uterine contraction and reduce bleeding. While oxytocin
administration is important, fundal massage is the fastest and most direct initial
intervention. Vital signs and catheter insertion are supportive measures but do not
address the root cause immediately. Prompt action prevents progression to hypovolemic
shock. NCLEX focus: Postpartum hemorrhage management. DIF: Application. REF:
Postpartum Complications. OBJ: Prioritize interventions for hemorrhage. TOP:
Physiological Integrity.
,A client in labor has a fetal heart rate of 90 bpm. What is the priority action?
a. Continue monitoring
b. Reposition the client
c. Administer oxytocin
d. Prepare for discharge
✔️ Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A fetal heart rate of 90 bpm indicates bradycardia and possible fetal distress.
The priority intervention is repositioning the mother (typically to the left lateral position)
to improve uteroplacental blood flow and fetal oxygenation. This is a rapid, noninvasive
intervention that can correct the issue. Oxytocin would worsen the condition by
increasing contractions, and monitoring alone delays necessary action. NCLEX focus:
Fetal monitoring. DIF: Application. REF: Intrapartum Fetal Assessment. OBJ: Recognize
fetal bradycardia. TOP: Physiological Integrity.
Which finding in a pregnant client indicates preeclampsia?
a. BP 140/90 mmHg with proteinuria
b. Mild edema in ankles
c. Weight gain 1 lb/week
d. HR 80 bpm
✔️ Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Preeclampsia is characterized by hypertension (≥140/90 mmHg) and
proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation. These findings indicate systemic vasospasm and
organ involvement, which can progress to eclampsia if untreated. Mild edema and
weight gain are common in pregnancy and not diagnostic. NCLEX focus: Hypertensive
disorders of pregnancy. DIF: Knowledge. REF: Preeclampsia. OBJ: Identify diagnostic
criteria. TOP: Physiological Integrity.
, A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which finding requires
immediate intervention?
a. Respiratory rate 10/min
b. BP 150/92 mmHg
c. Urine output 40 mL/hr
d. Reflexes 2+
✔️ Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate toxicity causes respiratory depression, and a respiratory
rate below 12/min is a critical sign. Immediate intervention is required to prevent
respiratory arrest. Therapeutic reflexes and adequate urine output indicate safe levels,
while elevated BP is expected in preeclampsia. NCLEX focus: Magnesium sulfate therapy.
DIF: Analysis. REF: Magnesium Sulfate. OBJ: Identify toxicity signs. TOP: Safety and
Infection Control.
Which client should the nurse see first?
a. Postpartum client with fundus firm
b. Laboring client with contractions every 5 minutes
c. Client with bright red vaginal bleeding
d. Newborn sleeping quietly
✔️ Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Bright red vaginal bleeding may indicate placental abruption or previa, both
of which are obstetric emergencies. Immediate assessment and intervention are required
to prevent maternal and fetal compromise. NCLEX focus: Prioritization. DIF: Analysis. REF:
Obstetric Emergencies. OBJ: Prioritize client care. TOP: Safe and Effective Care
Environment.
A newborn has a heart rate of 80 bpm after birth. What is the priority action?
ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK 200 QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY
GRADED A+||NEWEST VERSION
2026/2027 Frequently Most Tested Questions and 100%
Accurate From Past papers | Graded A+ , Reviewed and
Updated | 100% Guarantee Pass | Latest Exam and
Newest Version!!!
A nurse is caring for a postpartum client who is experiencing excessive bleeding. What is
the priority nursing action?
a. Administer oxytocin
b. Massage the fundus
c. Assess vital signs
d. Insert Foley catheter
✔️ Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Postpartum hemorrhage is most commonly caused by uterine atony, where
the uterus fails to contract effectively after delivery. The immediate priority is to massage
the fundus to stimulate uterine contraction and reduce bleeding. While oxytocin
administration is important, fundal massage is the fastest and most direct initial
intervention. Vital signs and catheter insertion are supportive measures but do not
address the root cause immediately. Prompt action prevents progression to hypovolemic
shock. NCLEX focus: Postpartum hemorrhage management. DIF: Application. REF:
Postpartum Complications. OBJ: Prioritize interventions for hemorrhage. TOP:
Physiological Integrity.
,A client in labor has a fetal heart rate of 90 bpm. What is the priority action?
a. Continue monitoring
b. Reposition the client
c. Administer oxytocin
d. Prepare for discharge
✔️ Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A fetal heart rate of 90 bpm indicates bradycardia and possible fetal distress.
The priority intervention is repositioning the mother (typically to the left lateral position)
to improve uteroplacental blood flow and fetal oxygenation. This is a rapid, noninvasive
intervention that can correct the issue. Oxytocin would worsen the condition by
increasing contractions, and monitoring alone delays necessary action. NCLEX focus:
Fetal monitoring. DIF: Application. REF: Intrapartum Fetal Assessment. OBJ: Recognize
fetal bradycardia. TOP: Physiological Integrity.
Which finding in a pregnant client indicates preeclampsia?
a. BP 140/90 mmHg with proteinuria
b. Mild edema in ankles
c. Weight gain 1 lb/week
d. HR 80 bpm
✔️ Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Preeclampsia is characterized by hypertension (≥140/90 mmHg) and
proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation. These findings indicate systemic vasospasm and
organ involvement, which can progress to eclampsia if untreated. Mild edema and
weight gain are common in pregnancy and not diagnostic. NCLEX focus: Hypertensive
disorders of pregnancy. DIF: Knowledge. REF: Preeclampsia. OBJ: Identify diagnostic
criteria. TOP: Physiological Integrity.
, A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which finding requires
immediate intervention?
a. Respiratory rate 10/min
b. BP 150/92 mmHg
c. Urine output 40 mL/hr
d. Reflexes 2+
✔️ Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate toxicity causes respiratory depression, and a respiratory
rate below 12/min is a critical sign. Immediate intervention is required to prevent
respiratory arrest. Therapeutic reflexes and adequate urine output indicate safe levels,
while elevated BP is expected in preeclampsia. NCLEX focus: Magnesium sulfate therapy.
DIF: Analysis. REF: Magnesium Sulfate. OBJ: Identify toxicity signs. TOP: Safety and
Infection Control.
Which client should the nurse see first?
a. Postpartum client with fundus firm
b. Laboring client with contractions every 5 minutes
c. Client with bright red vaginal bleeding
d. Newborn sleeping quietly
✔️ Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Bright red vaginal bleeding may indicate placental abruption or previa, both
of which are obstetric emergencies. Immediate assessment and intervention are required
to prevent maternal and fetal compromise. NCLEX focus: Prioritization. DIF: Analysis. REF:
Obstetric Emergencies. OBJ: Prioritize client care. TOP: Safe and Effective Care
Environment.
A newborn has a heart rate of 80 bpm after birth. What is the priority action?
