NREMT EXAMS 2026/2027
2026-2027
150 Questions
100% VERIFIED
Introduction
The NREMT Exam 2026/2027 is a comprehensive professional certification assessment designed to
evaluate competence in emergency medical services. This examination encompasses five essential
domains: Airway, Respiration, and Ventilation; Cardiology and Resuscitation; Trauma; Medical,
Obstetrics, and Gynecology; and EMS Operations. Mastery of these domains is critical for emergency
medical technicians and paramedics providing prehospital care. Success in this assessment
validates clinical readiness, reinforces best outcomes in emergency medical operations, and affirms
the professional standards expected in contemporary EMS.
Q1. What is the primary method for opening the airway in a trauma patient with suspected
cervical spine injury?
A. Lateral head rotation
B. Neck flexion
C. Jaw-thrust maneuver without head tilt
D. Head-tilt chin-lift
Rationale: The jaw-thrust maintains cervical spine alignment while opening the airway. Head-tilt chin-
lift moves the cervical spine, neck flexion compromises the airway, and lateral rotation may worsen
spinal injury.
Q2. What is the correct compression-to-breath ratio for adult CPR with two rescuers?
A. 10:2
B. 15:2
C. 5:1
D. 30:2
Rationale: Adult CPR uses 30:2 ratio for both one and two rescuers. 15:2 is for pediatric/infant two-
rescuer CPR, and 5:1 is outdated.
Q3. Which oxygen delivery device provides the highest concentration of oxygen?
A. Nasal cannula at 6 L/min
, B. Venturi mask at 50%
C. Non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min
D. Simple face mask at 10 L/min
Rationale: Non-rebreather delivers 80-95% FiO2. Nasal cannula provides 24-44%, simple mask 40-
60%, and Venturi provides precise but lower concentrations.
Q4. What is the appropriate suctioning time for an adult patient?
A. As long as needed to clear the airway
B. 30 seconds
C. No more than 15 seconds
D. 60 seconds
Rationale: Prolonged suctioning causes hypoxia and vagal stimulation. 15 seconds maximum for adults,
10 seconds for children, 5 seconds for infants.
Q5. What does the mnemonic 'OPQRST' stand for in patient assessment?
A. Onset, Position, Quality, Response, Signs, Time
B. Observation, Palpation, Question, Response, Signs, Treatment
C. Onset, Provocation, Quality, Region/Radiation, Severity, Time
D. Origin, Pain, Question, Response, Severity, Treatment
Rationale: OPQRST is the standard pain assessment mnemonic. The other options contain incorrect
elements.
Q6. What is the correct placement for an oropharyngeal airway (OPA)?
A. Inserted right-side up directly
B. Inserted with the curve facing up
C. Inserted upside down, then rotated 180 degrees once past the tongue
D. Forced in without rotation
Rationale: The OPA is inserted inverted and rotated to follow the natural curve of the oropharynx.
Direct insertion can push the tongue back and obstruct the airway.
Q7. What is the primary indication for using a bag-valve-mask (BVM)?
A. Stable breathing with normal rate
B. Apnea or inadequate ventilation
, C. Mild respiratory distress
D. Patient requesting oxygen
Rationale: BVM is for patients who are not breathing or breathing inadequately. Mild distress requires
supplemental oxygen, not positive pressure ventilation.
Q8. What is the correct flow rate for a non-rebreather mask?
A. 15 L/min minimum to keep the reservoir bag inflated
B. 2 L/min
C. 10 L/min
D. 6 L/min
Rationale: Non-rebreather requires 15 L/min to prevent bag collapse and ensure adequate oxygen
delivery. Lower flows allow bag deflation and CO2 rebreathing.
Q9. What is the primary sign of upper airway obstruction?
A. Crackles
B. Wheezing
C. Stridor
D. Rhonchi
Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched sound indicating upper airway obstruction. Wheezing indicates
lower airway obstruction, crackles indicate fluid, and rhonchi indicate secretions in larger airways.
Q10. What is the correct depth for adult chest compressions?
A. 1.5 inches
B. 3 inches
C. At least 2 inches (5 cm)
D. 1 inch
Rationale: Adult compressions require at least 2 inches depth. Shallower compressions are ineffective,
and 3 inches may cause injury.
Q11. What is the purpose of cricoid pressure during intubation?
A. To open the vocal cords
B. To increase oxygenation
C. To compress the esophagus and reduce aspiration risk
, D. To stabilize the head
Rationale: Cricoid pressure (Sellick maneuver) occludes the esophagus to prevent regurgitation. It does
not stabilize the head, open cords, or increase oxygenation.
Q12. What is the correct rate for adult chest compressions?
A. 120-140 per minute
B. 80-100 per minute
C. 60-80 per minute
D. 100-120 compressions per minute
Rationale: Current guidelines specify 100-120/min. Slower rates are ineffective, and faster rates reduce
filling time and effectiveness.
Q13. What is the primary advantage of a nasal airway over an oral airway?
A. Can be used in conscious patients with a gag reflex
B. Provides better oxygenation
C. Prevents aspiration
D. Is easier to insert
Rationale: NPA is tolerated by conscious patients with intact gag reflex. It doesn't provide better
oxygenation, isn't necessarily easier, and doesn't prevent aspiration.
Q14. What is the correct technique for measuring an oropharyngeal airway?
A. From the corner of the mouth to the earlobe
B. From the center of the mouth to the chin
C. From the ear to the nose
D. From the nose to the chin
Rationale: OPA is measured from mouth corner to earlobe. Incorrect measurement can cause airway
obstruction or trauma.
Q15. What is the primary cause of gastric distension during BVM ventilation?
A. Poor mask seal
B. Excessive ventilation rate or volume
C. Inadequate oxygen flow
D. Patient's body position
2026-2027
150 Questions
100% VERIFIED
Introduction
The NREMT Exam 2026/2027 is a comprehensive professional certification assessment designed to
evaluate competence in emergency medical services. This examination encompasses five essential
domains: Airway, Respiration, and Ventilation; Cardiology and Resuscitation; Trauma; Medical,
Obstetrics, and Gynecology; and EMS Operations. Mastery of these domains is critical for emergency
medical technicians and paramedics providing prehospital care. Success in this assessment
validates clinical readiness, reinforces best outcomes in emergency medical operations, and affirms
the professional standards expected in contemporary EMS.
Q1. What is the primary method for opening the airway in a trauma patient with suspected
cervical spine injury?
A. Lateral head rotation
B. Neck flexion
C. Jaw-thrust maneuver without head tilt
D. Head-tilt chin-lift
Rationale: The jaw-thrust maintains cervical spine alignment while opening the airway. Head-tilt chin-
lift moves the cervical spine, neck flexion compromises the airway, and lateral rotation may worsen
spinal injury.
Q2. What is the correct compression-to-breath ratio for adult CPR with two rescuers?
A. 10:2
B. 15:2
C. 5:1
D. 30:2
Rationale: Adult CPR uses 30:2 ratio for both one and two rescuers. 15:2 is for pediatric/infant two-
rescuer CPR, and 5:1 is outdated.
Q3. Which oxygen delivery device provides the highest concentration of oxygen?
A. Nasal cannula at 6 L/min
, B. Venturi mask at 50%
C. Non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min
D. Simple face mask at 10 L/min
Rationale: Non-rebreather delivers 80-95% FiO2. Nasal cannula provides 24-44%, simple mask 40-
60%, and Venturi provides precise but lower concentrations.
Q4. What is the appropriate suctioning time for an adult patient?
A. As long as needed to clear the airway
B. 30 seconds
C. No more than 15 seconds
D. 60 seconds
Rationale: Prolonged suctioning causes hypoxia and vagal stimulation. 15 seconds maximum for adults,
10 seconds for children, 5 seconds for infants.
Q5. What does the mnemonic 'OPQRST' stand for in patient assessment?
A. Onset, Position, Quality, Response, Signs, Time
B. Observation, Palpation, Question, Response, Signs, Treatment
C. Onset, Provocation, Quality, Region/Radiation, Severity, Time
D. Origin, Pain, Question, Response, Severity, Treatment
Rationale: OPQRST is the standard pain assessment mnemonic. The other options contain incorrect
elements.
Q6. What is the correct placement for an oropharyngeal airway (OPA)?
A. Inserted right-side up directly
B. Inserted with the curve facing up
C. Inserted upside down, then rotated 180 degrees once past the tongue
D. Forced in without rotation
Rationale: The OPA is inserted inverted and rotated to follow the natural curve of the oropharynx.
Direct insertion can push the tongue back and obstruct the airway.
Q7. What is the primary indication for using a bag-valve-mask (BVM)?
A. Stable breathing with normal rate
B. Apnea or inadequate ventilation
, C. Mild respiratory distress
D. Patient requesting oxygen
Rationale: BVM is for patients who are not breathing or breathing inadequately. Mild distress requires
supplemental oxygen, not positive pressure ventilation.
Q8. What is the correct flow rate for a non-rebreather mask?
A. 15 L/min minimum to keep the reservoir bag inflated
B. 2 L/min
C. 10 L/min
D. 6 L/min
Rationale: Non-rebreather requires 15 L/min to prevent bag collapse and ensure adequate oxygen
delivery. Lower flows allow bag deflation and CO2 rebreathing.
Q9. What is the primary sign of upper airway obstruction?
A. Crackles
B. Wheezing
C. Stridor
D. Rhonchi
Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched sound indicating upper airway obstruction. Wheezing indicates
lower airway obstruction, crackles indicate fluid, and rhonchi indicate secretions in larger airways.
Q10. What is the correct depth for adult chest compressions?
A. 1.5 inches
B. 3 inches
C. At least 2 inches (5 cm)
D. 1 inch
Rationale: Adult compressions require at least 2 inches depth. Shallower compressions are ineffective,
and 3 inches may cause injury.
Q11. What is the purpose of cricoid pressure during intubation?
A. To open the vocal cords
B. To increase oxygenation
C. To compress the esophagus and reduce aspiration risk
, D. To stabilize the head
Rationale: Cricoid pressure (Sellick maneuver) occludes the esophagus to prevent regurgitation. It does
not stabilize the head, open cords, or increase oxygenation.
Q12. What is the correct rate for adult chest compressions?
A. 120-140 per minute
B. 80-100 per minute
C. 60-80 per minute
D. 100-120 compressions per minute
Rationale: Current guidelines specify 100-120/min. Slower rates are ineffective, and faster rates reduce
filling time and effectiveness.
Q13. What is the primary advantage of a nasal airway over an oral airway?
A. Can be used in conscious patients with a gag reflex
B. Provides better oxygenation
C. Prevents aspiration
D. Is easier to insert
Rationale: NPA is tolerated by conscious patients with intact gag reflex. It doesn't provide better
oxygenation, isn't necessarily easier, and doesn't prevent aspiration.
Q14. What is the correct technique for measuring an oropharyngeal airway?
A. From the corner of the mouth to the earlobe
B. From the center of the mouth to the chin
C. From the ear to the nose
D. From the nose to the chin
Rationale: OPA is measured from mouth corner to earlobe. Incorrect measurement can cause airway
obstruction or trauma.
Q15. What is the primary cause of gastric distension during BVM ventilation?
A. Poor mask seal
B. Excessive ventilation rate or volume
C. Inadequate oxygen flow
D. Patient's body position
