FISDAP EXAM 2026/2027 Frequently Most Tested
Questions and 100% Accurate From Past papers |
Graded A+ , Reviewed and Updated | 100%
Guarantee Pass | Latest Exam and Newest
Version!!!
A paramedic responds to a scene where a patient is in cardiac arrest. The paramedic applies
the automated external defibrillator (AED) and delivers a shock. At which EMS provider level is
AED use considered a core skill?
a. Emergency Medical Responder (EMR) only
b. Emergency Medical Technician (EMT) only
c. Advanced Emergency Medical Technician (AEMT) only
d. All EMS provider levels (EMR, EMT, AEMT, and Paramedic)
✔️ Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Automated External Defibrillator (AED) use is a skill included at every EMS provider
level, from Emergency Medical Responder (EMR) through Paramedic. This standardized skill
ensures that all EMS personnel can provide early defibrillation, which is critical for survival in
cardiac arrest. The AED is designed for use by both BLS and ALS providers. Option A is incorrect
because AED use is not limited to EMRs. Option B is incorrect because AED use is not limited
to EMTs. Option C is incorrect because AED use is not limited to AEMTs. All EMS providers,
regardless of certification level, are trained in and expected to use AEDs when indicated.
A patient refuses transport after a minor motor vehicle collision. The EMT explains the risks of
refusal, including the potential for internal bleeding and delayed symptoms. The patient signs
a refusal form. What type of refusal does this represent?
a. Implied refusal
b. Informed refusal
,c. Involuntary refusal
d. Conditional refusal
✔️ Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Informed refusal occurs when a patient understands the risks, benefits, and
consequences of refusing care and transport. The EMT must thoroughly explain the potential
consequences and document the patient's understanding. Option A is incorrect because
implied refusal does not apply in this scenario. Option C is incorrect because involuntary
refusal is not a recognized term in EMS. Option D is incorrect because conditional refusal
refers to a patient who accepts care only under certain conditions.
An EMT is off duty and witnesses a motor vehicle crash. The EMT stops to provide care but has
no legal duty to act. Which of the following best explains this situation?
a. The EMT has a legal duty to act because of their certification
b. The EMT has a legal duty to act only if they are the first on scene
c. The EMT has no legal duty to act unless required by policy or law
d. The EMT has a legal duty to act only if they are employed by a 911 service
✔️ Correct Answer: C
Rationale: EMTs generally have no legal duty to act when they are off duty unless required by
specific policy, employment contract, or state law. While many EMTs may choose to stop and
provide care based on ethical obligations, legal duty typically only exists when the EMT is on
duty or when a special relationship exists. Option A is incorrect because certification alone
does not create a legal duty to act off duty. Option B is incorrect because being first on scene
does not create a legal duty. Option D is incorrect because employment by a 911 service does
not create an off-duty duty to act unless specified.
An EMT terminates care for a patient before transferring care to a higher-level provider. The
patient's condition deteriorates after the EMT leaves. What legal concept is most relevant to
this situation?
a. Negligence
b. Abandonment
c. Battery
d. Assault
, ✔️ Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Abandonment occurs when care is terminated without proper transfer to an equal
or higher-level provider. In this scenario, the EMT terminated care before transferring to a
higher-level provider, which constitutes abandonment. Option A is incorrect because
negligence involves deviation from the standard of care causing harm, but the specific issue
here is abandonment. Option C is incorrect because battery involves unauthorized touching.
Option D is incorrect because assault involves threatening behavior.
An EMT experiences a needlestick injury while starting an IV. What is the EMT's immediate
obligation?
a. Continue with patient care and report later
b. Immediately report to the supervisor and follow exposure protocol
c. Ignore the injury if it is minor
d. Wash the site and continue with duties
✔️ Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Needlestick injuries must be reported immediately to the supervisor, and the EMT
must follow the established exposure protocol. This includes post-exposure prophylaxis,
testing, and documentation. Prompt reporting ensures timely treatment and reduces the risk
of bloodborne pathogen transmission. Option A is incorrect because delaying reporting can
compromise post-exposure treatment. Option C is incorrect because no needlestick injury
should be ignored. Option D is incorrect because while washing the site is appropriate,
reporting and following the exposure protocol is the primary obligation.
An EMT uses a 10-code over the radio to communicate with dispatch. What is the current
recommendation regarding 10-codes in EMS?
a. 10-codes are recommended for efficient communication
b. 10-codes are required for interoperability
c. 10-codes are NOT recommended; plain language should be used
d. 10-codes are only recommended for inter-agency communication
✔️ Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The use of 10-codes is NOT recommended in EMS; plain language communication is
preferred. This recommendation is based on the need for clear, unambiguous communication
that is easily understood by all responders. Plain language reduces confusion, improves
interoperability, and ensures consistent understanding across agencies. Option A is incorrect
Questions and 100% Accurate From Past papers |
Graded A+ , Reviewed and Updated | 100%
Guarantee Pass | Latest Exam and Newest
Version!!!
A paramedic responds to a scene where a patient is in cardiac arrest. The paramedic applies
the automated external defibrillator (AED) and delivers a shock. At which EMS provider level is
AED use considered a core skill?
a. Emergency Medical Responder (EMR) only
b. Emergency Medical Technician (EMT) only
c. Advanced Emergency Medical Technician (AEMT) only
d. All EMS provider levels (EMR, EMT, AEMT, and Paramedic)
✔️ Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Automated External Defibrillator (AED) use is a skill included at every EMS provider
level, from Emergency Medical Responder (EMR) through Paramedic. This standardized skill
ensures that all EMS personnel can provide early defibrillation, which is critical for survival in
cardiac arrest. The AED is designed for use by both BLS and ALS providers. Option A is incorrect
because AED use is not limited to EMRs. Option B is incorrect because AED use is not limited
to EMTs. Option C is incorrect because AED use is not limited to AEMTs. All EMS providers,
regardless of certification level, are trained in and expected to use AEDs when indicated.
A patient refuses transport after a minor motor vehicle collision. The EMT explains the risks of
refusal, including the potential for internal bleeding and delayed symptoms. The patient signs
a refusal form. What type of refusal does this represent?
a. Implied refusal
b. Informed refusal
,c. Involuntary refusal
d. Conditional refusal
✔️ Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Informed refusal occurs when a patient understands the risks, benefits, and
consequences of refusing care and transport. The EMT must thoroughly explain the potential
consequences and document the patient's understanding. Option A is incorrect because
implied refusal does not apply in this scenario. Option C is incorrect because involuntary
refusal is not a recognized term in EMS. Option D is incorrect because conditional refusal
refers to a patient who accepts care only under certain conditions.
An EMT is off duty and witnesses a motor vehicle crash. The EMT stops to provide care but has
no legal duty to act. Which of the following best explains this situation?
a. The EMT has a legal duty to act because of their certification
b. The EMT has a legal duty to act only if they are the first on scene
c. The EMT has no legal duty to act unless required by policy or law
d. The EMT has a legal duty to act only if they are employed by a 911 service
✔️ Correct Answer: C
Rationale: EMTs generally have no legal duty to act when they are off duty unless required by
specific policy, employment contract, or state law. While many EMTs may choose to stop and
provide care based on ethical obligations, legal duty typically only exists when the EMT is on
duty or when a special relationship exists. Option A is incorrect because certification alone
does not create a legal duty to act off duty. Option B is incorrect because being first on scene
does not create a legal duty. Option D is incorrect because employment by a 911 service does
not create an off-duty duty to act unless specified.
An EMT terminates care for a patient before transferring care to a higher-level provider. The
patient's condition deteriorates after the EMT leaves. What legal concept is most relevant to
this situation?
a. Negligence
b. Abandonment
c. Battery
d. Assault
, ✔️ Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Abandonment occurs when care is terminated without proper transfer to an equal
or higher-level provider. In this scenario, the EMT terminated care before transferring to a
higher-level provider, which constitutes abandonment. Option A is incorrect because
negligence involves deviation from the standard of care causing harm, but the specific issue
here is abandonment. Option C is incorrect because battery involves unauthorized touching.
Option D is incorrect because assault involves threatening behavior.
An EMT experiences a needlestick injury while starting an IV. What is the EMT's immediate
obligation?
a. Continue with patient care and report later
b. Immediately report to the supervisor and follow exposure protocol
c. Ignore the injury if it is minor
d. Wash the site and continue with duties
✔️ Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Needlestick injuries must be reported immediately to the supervisor, and the EMT
must follow the established exposure protocol. This includes post-exposure prophylaxis,
testing, and documentation. Prompt reporting ensures timely treatment and reduces the risk
of bloodborne pathogen transmission. Option A is incorrect because delaying reporting can
compromise post-exposure treatment. Option C is incorrect because no needlestick injury
should be ignored. Option D is incorrect because while washing the site is appropriate,
reporting and following the exposure protocol is the primary obligation.
An EMT uses a 10-code over the radio to communicate with dispatch. What is the current
recommendation regarding 10-codes in EMS?
a. 10-codes are recommended for efficient communication
b. 10-codes are required for interoperability
c. 10-codes are NOT recommended; plain language should be used
d. 10-codes are only recommended for inter-agency communication
✔️ Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The use of 10-codes is NOT recommended in EMS; plain language communication is
preferred. This recommendation is based on the need for clear, unambiguous communication
that is easily understood by all responders. Plain language reduces confusion, improves
interoperability, and ensures consistent understanding across agencies. Option A is incorrect
