HESI FUNDAMENTALS EXIT EXAM V1,
V2 & V3 RN & PN – COMPLETE TEST
BANK: 300+ QUESTIONS, ANSWERS,
AND RATIONALES (2026/2027
EDITION)
Question 1
The nurse is instructing a client with high cholesterol about diet and lifestyle
modification. What comment from the client indicates that the teaching has
been effective?
A) "If I exercise at least two times weekly for one hour, I will lower my cholesterol."
B) "I need to avoid eating proteins, including red meat."
C) "I will limit my intake of beef to 4 ounces per week."
D) "My blood level of low density lipoproteins needs to increase."
Correct answer: C) I will limit my intake of beef to 4 ounces per week.
Rationale: Limiting saturated fat intake, such as from red meat, is a key dietary
modification for managing high cholesterol. This specific, measurable goal
demonstrates an understanding of portion control and dietary restriction .
Question 2
A client with acute hemorrhagic anemia is to receive four units of packed RBCs
(red blood cells) as rapidly as possible. Which intervention is most important
for the nurse to implement?
A) Obtain the pre-transfusion hemoglobin level.
B) Prime the tubing and prepare a blood pump set-up.
C) Monitor vital signs q15 minutes for the first hour.
D) Ensure the accuracy of the blood type match.
Correct answer: D) Ensure the accuracy of the blood type match.
,Rationale: The most critical safety step prior to any blood transfusion is verifying the
accuracy of the blood type and crossmatch to prevent a fatal hemolytic transfusion
reaction. While priming tubing and monitoring vitals are important, they are
secondary to ensuring the correct blood product is administered .
Question 3
The nurse observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) taking a client's
blood pressure with a cuff that is too small, but the blood pressure reading
obtained is within the client's usual range. What action is most important for
the nurse to implement?
A) Tell the UAP to use a larger cuff at the next scheduled assessment.
B) Reassess the client's blood pressure using a larger cuff.
C) Have the unit educator review this procedure with the UAPs.
D) Teach the UAP the correct technique for assessing blood pressure.
Correct answer: B) Reassess the client's blood pressure using a larger cuff.
Rationale: Using a cuff that is too small can yield a falsely elevated blood pressure
reading. Even if the reading seems "usual," the nurse must immediately obtain an
accurate assessment with the correct equipment to ensure client safety and data
reliability .
Question 4
The nurse prepares a 1,000 ml IV of 5% dextrose and water to be infused over 8
hours. The infusion set delivers 10 drops per milliliter. The nurse should
regulate the IV to administer approximately how many drops per minute?
A) 80
B) 8
C) 21
D) 25
Correct answer: C) 21 drops per minute
Rationale: Formula: (Total volume in mL x Drop factor) / Total time in minutes. (1000
mL × 10 gtt/mL) / (8 hours × 60 minutes) = 10, = 20.83 gtt/min. Rounded
to the nearest whole number is 21 drops per minute .
,Question 5
A client with congestive heart failure reports shortness of breath and increasing
fatigue. The nurse notes bilateral crackles and 2+ pitting edema. What should
the nurse do first?
A) Encourage the client to increase fluid intake
B) Administer the prescribed diuretic
C) Place the client in high-Fowler’s position
D) Document the findings and reassess in 2 hours
Correct answer: C) Place the client in high-Fowler’s position.
Rationale: High-Fowler's position improves ventilation and oxygenation
immediately. Diuretics can be administered next, but positioning is the priority to
relieve respiratory distress .
Question 6
A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which lab value requires immediate
intervention?
A. INR 1.0
B. Platelets 120,000
C. aPTT 90 seconds
D. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
Correct answer: C. aPTT 90 seconds
Rationale: Heparin increases aPTT. A value of 90 seconds is significantly elevated
and indicates increased bleeding risk. The therapeutic range for heparin is typically
1.5–2.5 times the normal control value .
Question 7
, A client with an NG tube is receiving continuous suction. The client complains
of dry mouth and throat. What should the nurse do?
A. Offer frequent oral care
B. Increase suction pressure
C. Stop suctioning
D. Remove the NG tube
Correct answer: A. Offer frequent oral care
Rationale: Frequent oral care relieves dryness and prevents infection while
maintaining suction. Increasing suction pressure does not address the dryness and
could damage the gastric mucosa. Stopping or removing the tube is unnecessary and
would interrupt treatment .
Question 8
A client with asthma reports wheezing and shortness of breath after using a
bronchodilator. What should the nurse do?
A. Administer the medication again
B. Notify the provider immediately
C. Encourage deep breathing
D. Document and reassess in 1 hour
Correct answer: B. Notify the provider immediately
Rationale: Persistent wheezing after bronchodilator use may indicate worsening
asthma or an adverse reaction and needs immediate evaluation. This finding could
signal status asthmaticus or respiratory compromise requiring urgent intervention .
Question 9
A client with a urinary catheter complains of bladder spasms. What should the
nurse do first?
A. Increase fluid intake
B. Check for kinks in the tubing
V2 & V3 RN & PN – COMPLETE TEST
BANK: 300+ QUESTIONS, ANSWERS,
AND RATIONALES (2026/2027
EDITION)
Question 1
The nurse is instructing a client with high cholesterol about diet and lifestyle
modification. What comment from the client indicates that the teaching has
been effective?
A) "If I exercise at least two times weekly for one hour, I will lower my cholesterol."
B) "I need to avoid eating proteins, including red meat."
C) "I will limit my intake of beef to 4 ounces per week."
D) "My blood level of low density lipoproteins needs to increase."
Correct answer: C) I will limit my intake of beef to 4 ounces per week.
Rationale: Limiting saturated fat intake, such as from red meat, is a key dietary
modification for managing high cholesterol. This specific, measurable goal
demonstrates an understanding of portion control and dietary restriction .
Question 2
A client with acute hemorrhagic anemia is to receive four units of packed RBCs
(red blood cells) as rapidly as possible. Which intervention is most important
for the nurse to implement?
A) Obtain the pre-transfusion hemoglobin level.
B) Prime the tubing and prepare a blood pump set-up.
C) Monitor vital signs q15 minutes for the first hour.
D) Ensure the accuracy of the blood type match.
Correct answer: D) Ensure the accuracy of the blood type match.
,Rationale: The most critical safety step prior to any blood transfusion is verifying the
accuracy of the blood type and crossmatch to prevent a fatal hemolytic transfusion
reaction. While priming tubing and monitoring vitals are important, they are
secondary to ensuring the correct blood product is administered .
Question 3
The nurse observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) taking a client's
blood pressure with a cuff that is too small, but the blood pressure reading
obtained is within the client's usual range. What action is most important for
the nurse to implement?
A) Tell the UAP to use a larger cuff at the next scheduled assessment.
B) Reassess the client's blood pressure using a larger cuff.
C) Have the unit educator review this procedure with the UAPs.
D) Teach the UAP the correct technique for assessing blood pressure.
Correct answer: B) Reassess the client's blood pressure using a larger cuff.
Rationale: Using a cuff that is too small can yield a falsely elevated blood pressure
reading. Even if the reading seems "usual," the nurse must immediately obtain an
accurate assessment with the correct equipment to ensure client safety and data
reliability .
Question 4
The nurse prepares a 1,000 ml IV of 5% dextrose and water to be infused over 8
hours. The infusion set delivers 10 drops per milliliter. The nurse should
regulate the IV to administer approximately how many drops per minute?
A) 80
B) 8
C) 21
D) 25
Correct answer: C) 21 drops per minute
Rationale: Formula: (Total volume in mL x Drop factor) / Total time in minutes. (1000
mL × 10 gtt/mL) / (8 hours × 60 minutes) = 10, = 20.83 gtt/min. Rounded
to the nearest whole number is 21 drops per minute .
,Question 5
A client with congestive heart failure reports shortness of breath and increasing
fatigue. The nurse notes bilateral crackles and 2+ pitting edema. What should
the nurse do first?
A) Encourage the client to increase fluid intake
B) Administer the prescribed diuretic
C) Place the client in high-Fowler’s position
D) Document the findings and reassess in 2 hours
Correct answer: C) Place the client in high-Fowler’s position.
Rationale: High-Fowler's position improves ventilation and oxygenation
immediately. Diuretics can be administered next, but positioning is the priority to
relieve respiratory distress .
Question 6
A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which lab value requires immediate
intervention?
A. INR 1.0
B. Platelets 120,000
C. aPTT 90 seconds
D. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
Correct answer: C. aPTT 90 seconds
Rationale: Heparin increases aPTT. A value of 90 seconds is significantly elevated
and indicates increased bleeding risk. The therapeutic range for heparin is typically
1.5–2.5 times the normal control value .
Question 7
, A client with an NG tube is receiving continuous suction. The client complains
of dry mouth and throat. What should the nurse do?
A. Offer frequent oral care
B. Increase suction pressure
C. Stop suctioning
D. Remove the NG tube
Correct answer: A. Offer frequent oral care
Rationale: Frequent oral care relieves dryness and prevents infection while
maintaining suction. Increasing suction pressure does not address the dryness and
could damage the gastric mucosa. Stopping or removing the tube is unnecessary and
would interrupt treatment .
Question 8
A client with asthma reports wheezing and shortness of breath after using a
bronchodilator. What should the nurse do?
A. Administer the medication again
B. Notify the provider immediately
C. Encourage deep breathing
D. Document and reassess in 1 hour
Correct answer: B. Notify the provider immediately
Rationale: Persistent wheezing after bronchodilator use may indicate worsening
asthma or an adverse reaction and needs immediate evaluation. This finding could
signal status asthmaticus or respiratory compromise requiring urgent intervention .
Question 9
A client with a urinary catheter complains of bladder spasms. What should the
nurse do first?
A. Increase fluid intake
B. Check for kinks in the tubing
