ANCC FNP Board Exam Prep – 900+ Practice Questions & Review Terms for 2026 Family Nurse Practitioner Certification Exam Review (PDF)

ANCC FNP Board Exam Prep – 900+
Practice Questions & Review Terms for
2026 Family Nurse Practitioner
Certification Exam Review (PDF)


ANCC FNP Practice Questions (2026)

Test your knowledge with the following questions that reflect the style and complexity
of the actual ANCC exam. The correct answer is bolded and a detailed rationale is
provided.

Question 1

A 16-year-old male presents with an insect bite on his left forearm. The NP suspects a
brown recluse spider bite. Which medical management would the NP provide?

• A) Incision and drainage of the bite site
• B) Antibiotic prophylaxis
• C) Ice pack and elevation of the area
• D) Warm compresses and oral antihistamines

Rationale: The treatment for a brown recluse spider bite is symptomatic and includes
local wound care, ice packs to reduce swelling, and elevation of the affected extremity.
Incision and drainage, warm compresses, and prophylactic antibiotics are not
recommended. Warm compresses can actually increase tissue damage due to the
venom’s necrotic properties.

Question 2

,A 67-year-old male with type 2 diabetes is being managed in your primary care clinic.
Which lab test should be ordered every 3-6 months to assess his glycemic control?

• A) Fasting blood glucose
• B) Hemoglobin A1c
• C) Serum creatinine
• D) Lipid panel

Rationale: The Hemoglobin A1c test measures average blood glucose over the
preceding 2-3 months and is the standard for monitoring long-term glycemic control in
patients with diabetes. While fasting blood glucose, creatinine, and lipid panels are
important, they are not the primary test for evaluating glycemic control every 3-6
months.

Question 3

According to the USPSTF guidelines, screening older adults for depression should be
performed:

• A) Only if the patient reports symptoms
• B) At each primary care visit
• C) At the initial visit and then annually
• D) Only when there is a family history of depression

Rationale: The United States Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) recommends
screening all adults, including older adults, for depression when staff-assisted
depression care supports are in place. This screening should be performed routinely,
often at each primary care visit, using a standardized tool like the PHQ-9.

Question 4

A patient is diagnosed with left-sided heart failure. Which medication would the NP
most likely prescribe as first-line treatment?

, • A) Digoxin
• B) Furosemide (Lasix)
• C) Metoprolol
• D) Spironolactone

Rationale: Loop diuretics such as furosemide are a cornerstone of symptomatic
management for heart failure. They quickly reduce fluid overload, relieving symptoms
like dyspnea and edema. While metoprolol and spironolactone are also important for
managing heart failure, they are typically added to a diuretic regimen, not used as the
primary first-line symptomatic treatment.

Question 5

A patient with AIDS is hospitalized with severe watery diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and
nausea. Labs show an electrolyte imbalance. Which opportunistic infection is most likely
the cause?

• A) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
• B) Cryptosporidiosis
• C) Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC)
• D) Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PJP)

Rationale: Cryptosporidiosis is a parasitic infection that causes profound, watery
diarrhea in immunocompromised patients, often leading to severe dehydration and
electrolyte imbalances. It can be a life-threatening infection in patients with AIDS. Other
conditions like CMV and MAC can cause GI symptoms, but the hallmark of
cryptosporidiosis is the severe, watery diarrhea.
continue
Here is the continuation of your ANCC FNP Board Exam Prep – 900+ Practice
Questions & Review. We are now moving into Questions 6 through 50, covering
high-yield topics across the lifespan,
including Cardiovascular, Pulmonary, Endocrine, Neurology, Women's
Health, Pediatrics, and Professional Issues.

, ANCC FNP Practice Questions (Continued)

Section 1: Cardiovascular & Pulmonary




Question 6

A 55-year-old male with a 30-pack-year smoking history presents with a chronic
cough, hemoptysis, and weight loss. A chest X-ray shows a solitary pulmonary
nodule. What is the most appropriate next step?

• A) Repeat chest X-ray in 6 months
• B) Start empiric antibiotics for pneumonia
• C) Order a contrast-enhanced CT scan of the chest
• D) Order a PET/CT scan immediately

Rationale: A solitary pulmonary nodule in a patient with significant smoking history and
concerning symptoms (hemoptysis, weight loss) warrants further imaging. A contrast-
enhanced CT scan provides detailed characterization of the nodule (size, margins,
calcification) and guides the next steps (biopsy vs. surveillance). PET/CT may be used
later for staging if malignancy is confirmed.




Question 7