BSN | Advanced Nursing Fundamentals | Exam 3 Practice
Questions 2026 UPDATED ACTUAL Questions and
CORRECT Answers
1. A nurse is assessing a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD). Which of the following delivery devices is most appropriate for
providing a precise concentration of oxygen?
A. Simple face mask
B. Venturi mask
C. Nasal cannula
D. Partial rebreather mask
Answer: B
Rationale: The Venturi mask is the most accurate device for delivering a specific, precise
concentration of oxygen, which is critical for patients with COPD to avoid suppressing their
hypoxic drive.
2. While suctioning a patient’s tracheostomy, the nurse should limit each
suction pass to no more than:
A. 5 seconds
B. 10 to 15 seconds
C. 20 to 30 seconds
D. 1 minute
Answer: B
Rationale: Suctioning should be limited to 10-15 seconds per pass to prevent hypoxia and
vagal stimulation.
,3. An arterial blood gas (ABG) report shows a pH of 7.30, a PaCO2 of 50 mmHg,
and a HCO3 of 24 mEq/L. How should the nurse interpret these results?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
Answer: C
Rationale: A pH below 7.35 indicates acidosis. A PaCO2 above 45 mmHg indicates a
respiratory cause, and since the HCO3 is normal, it is uncompensated respiratory acidosis.
4. Which electrolyte imbalance is most closely associated with the presence of
peaked T-waves on an EKG?
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypomagnesemia
Answer: C
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (high potassium) causes characteristic changes in the EKG, most
notably tall, peaked T-waves.
5. A nurse is caring for a patient with a sodium level of 128 mEq/L. Which of the
following is a priority nursing intervention?
A. Initiating seizure precautions
B. Encouraging increased fluid intake
C. Administering a diuretic
D. Providing a low-salt diet
Answer: A
Rationale: Hyponatremia (sodium < 135 mEq/L) puts the patient at high risk for
neurological changes and seizures; safety is the priority.
, 6. When assessing a patient for fluid volume deficit, which finding should the
nurse expect?
A. Orthostatic hypotension
B. Bounding pulse
C. Increased skin turgor
D. Distended neck veins
Answer: A
Rationale: Fluid volume deficit (dehydration) leads to decreased blood volume, resulting
in symptoms like orthostatic hypotension, flat neck veins, and weak pulses.
7. A stage 2 pressure injury is characterized by:
A. Non-blanchable erythema of intact skin
B. Partial-thickness loss of dermis presenting as a shallow open ulcer
C. Full-thickness tissue loss with visible subcutaneous fat
D. Full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone or muscle
Answer: B
Rationale: Stage 2 pressure injuries involve partial-thickness loss of the dermis, often
appearing as a shallow ulcer or a ruptured/intact serum-filled blister.
8. A nurse finds a surgical wound has separated and the abdominal organs are
protruding. What is the immediate priority?
A. Call the family to provide support
B. Cover the protruding organs with sterile gauze moistened with sterile saline
C. Gently push the organs back into the cavity
D. Place the patient in a high-Fowler’s position
Answer: B
Rationale: This is an evisceration. The nurse must protect the organs from infection and
drying by covering them with sterile, saline-moistened dressings and then calling the
surgeon.
Questions 2026 UPDATED ACTUAL Questions and
CORRECT Answers
1. A nurse is assessing a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD). Which of the following delivery devices is most appropriate for
providing a precise concentration of oxygen?
A. Simple face mask
B. Venturi mask
C. Nasal cannula
D. Partial rebreather mask
Answer: B
Rationale: The Venturi mask is the most accurate device for delivering a specific, precise
concentration of oxygen, which is critical for patients with COPD to avoid suppressing their
hypoxic drive.
2. While suctioning a patient’s tracheostomy, the nurse should limit each
suction pass to no more than:
A. 5 seconds
B. 10 to 15 seconds
C. 20 to 30 seconds
D. 1 minute
Answer: B
Rationale: Suctioning should be limited to 10-15 seconds per pass to prevent hypoxia and
vagal stimulation.
,3. An arterial blood gas (ABG) report shows a pH of 7.30, a PaCO2 of 50 mmHg,
and a HCO3 of 24 mEq/L. How should the nurse interpret these results?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
Answer: C
Rationale: A pH below 7.35 indicates acidosis. A PaCO2 above 45 mmHg indicates a
respiratory cause, and since the HCO3 is normal, it is uncompensated respiratory acidosis.
4. Which electrolyte imbalance is most closely associated with the presence of
peaked T-waves on an EKG?
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypomagnesemia
Answer: C
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (high potassium) causes characteristic changes in the EKG, most
notably tall, peaked T-waves.
5. A nurse is caring for a patient with a sodium level of 128 mEq/L. Which of the
following is a priority nursing intervention?
A. Initiating seizure precautions
B. Encouraging increased fluid intake
C. Administering a diuretic
D. Providing a low-salt diet
Answer: A
Rationale: Hyponatremia (sodium < 135 mEq/L) puts the patient at high risk for
neurological changes and seizures; safety is the priority.
, 6. When assessing a patient for fluid volume deficit, which finding should the
nurse expect?
A. Orthostatic hypotension
B. Bounding pulse
C. Increased skin turgor
D. Distended neck veins
Answer: A
Rationale: Fluid volume deficit (dehydration) leads to decreased blood volume, resulting
in symptoms like orthostatic hypotension, flat neck veins, and weak pulses.
7. A stage 2 pressure injury is characterized by:
A. Non-blanchable erythema of intact skin
B. Partial-thickness loss of dermis presenting as a shallow open ulcer
C. Full-thickness tissue loss with visible subcutaneous fat
D. Full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone or muscle
Answer: B
Rationale: Stage 2 pressure injuries involve partial-thickness loss of the dermis, often
appearing as a shallow ulcer or a ruptured/intact serum-filled blister.
8. A nurse finds a surgical wound has separated and the abdominal organs are
protruding. What is the immediate priority?
A. Call the family to provide support
B. Cover the protruding organs with sterile gauze moistened with sterile saline
C. Gently push the organs back into the cavity
D. Place the patient in a high-Fowler’s position
Answer: B
Rationale: This is an evisceration. The nurse must protect the organs from infection and
drying by covering them with sterile, saline-moistened dressings and then calling the
surgeon.
