BIOD 351 Module 3 Pharmacology Exam 2026/2027
UPDATE UPDATED ACTUAL Questions and CORRECT
Answers
1. Which of the following is the primary mechanism of action for
benzodiazepines?
A. Directly opening chloride channels
B. Enhancing the effect of GABA at the GABA-A receptor
C. Antagonizing dopamine D2 receptors
D. Inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin
Answer: B
Rationale: Benzodiazepines act as positive allosteric modulators, enhancing the inhibitory
effects of GABA by increasing the frequency of chloride channel opening.
2. Which medication is considered the gold standard antidote for
benzodiazepine overdose?
A. Naloxone
B. Acetylcysteine
C. Protamine sulfate
D. Flumazenil
Answer: D
Rationale: Flumazenil is a competitive benzodiazepine receptor antagonist used to reverse
the sedative effects of benzodiazepines.
,3. Which property of barbiturates makes them more dangerous in overdose
compared to benzodiazepines?
A. They can directly open chloride channels at high doses
B. They have a very long half-life
C. They cause severe hypertension
D. They are only administered intravenously
Answer: A
Rationale: Unlike benzodiazepines, barbiturates can directly mimic GABA at high
concentrations, leading to profound CNS and respiratory depression.
4. Which of the following SSRIs is known for having a particularly long half-life,
reducing the risk of discontinuation syndrome?
A. Sertraline
B. Fluoxetine
C. Paroxetine
D. Escitalopram
Answer: B
Rationale: Fluoxetine has a very long half-life (and an active metabolite), which provides a
‘self-tapering’ effect when the drug is stopped.
5. Patients taking Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs) must avoid foods high
in tyramine to prevent which complication?
A. Serotonin syndrome
B. Hypertensive crisis
C. Aplastic anemia
D. Tardive dyskinesia
Answer: B
Rationale: Tyramine promotes the release of norepinephrine; when MAO is inhibited,
norepinephrine levels can rise to dangerous levels, causing a hypertensive crisis.
, 6. Which symptom is most characteristic of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
(NMS) associated with antipsychotic use?
A. Muscle rigidity (‘lead-pipe’)
B. Hypothermia
C. Low blood pressure
D. Hyperreflexia
Answer: A
Rationale: NMS is a life-threatening reaction characterized by severe muscle rigidity, fever,
autonomic instability, and altered mental status.
7. What is the primary mechanism of typical (first-generation) antipsychotics
like Haloperidol?
A. 5-HT2A receptor antagonism
B. GABA-A receptor agonism
C. Norepinephrine reuptake inhibition
D. Dopamine D2 receptor antagonism
Answer: D
Rationale: Typical antipsychotics primarily work by blocking dopamine D2 receptors in
the mesolimbic pathway.
8. Which second-generation antipsychotic requires regular blood monitoring
due to the risk of agranulocytosis?
A. Risperidone
B. Clozapine
C. Quetiapine
D. Olanzapine
Answer: B
Rationale: Clozapine can cause severe neutropenia/agranulocytosis, requiring mandatory
Absolute Neutrophil Count (ANC) monitoring.
UPDATE UPDATED ACTUAL Questions and CORRECT
Answers
1. Which of the following is the primary mechanism of action for
benzodiazepines?
A. Directly opening chloride channels
B. Enhancing the effect of GABA at the GABA-A receptor
C. Antagonizing dopamine D2 receptors
D. Inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin
Answer: B
Rationale: Benzodiazepines act as positive allosteric modulators, enhancing the inhibitory
effects of GABA by increasing the frequency of chloride channel opening.
2. Which medication is considered the gold standard antidote for
benzodiazepine overdose?
A. Naloxone
B. Acetylcysteine
C. Protamine sulfate
D. Flumazenil
Answer: D
Rationale: Flumazenil is a competitive benzodiazepine receptor antagonist used to reverse
the sedative effects of benzodiazepines.
,3. Which property of barbiturates makes them more dangerous in overdose
compared to benzodiazepines?
A. They can directly open chloride channels at high doses
B. They have a very long half-life
C. They cause severe hypertension
D. They are only administered intravenously
Answer: A
Rationale: Unlike benzodiazepines, barbiturates can directly mimic GABA at high
concentrations, leading to profound CNS and respiratory depression.
4. Which of the following SSRIs is known for having a particularly long half-life,
reducing the risk of discontinuation syndrome?
A. Sertraline
B. Fluoxetine
C. Paroxetine
D. Escitalopram
Answer: B
Rationale: Fluoxetine has a very long half-life (and an active metabolite), which provides a
‘self-tapering’ effect when the drug is stopped.
5. Patients taking Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs) must avoid foods high
in tyramine to prevent which complication?
A. Serotonin syndrome
B. Hypertensive crisis
C. Aplastic anemia
D. Tardive dyskinesia
Answer: B
Rationale: Tyramine promotes the release of norepinephrine; when MAO is inhibited,
norepinephrine levels can rise to dangerous levels, causing a hypertensive crisis.
, 6. Which symptom is most characteristic of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
(NMS) associated with antipsychotic use?
A. Muscle rigidity (‘lead-pipe’)
B. Hypothermia
C. Low blood pressure
D. Hyperreflexia
Answer: A
Rationale: NMS is a life-threatening reaction characterized by severe muscle rigidity, fever,
autonomic instability, and altered mental status.
7. What is the primary mechanism of typical (first-generation) antipsychotics
like Haloperidol?
A. 5-HT2A receptor antagonism
B. GABA-A receptor agonism
C. Norepinephrine reuptake inhibition
D. Dopamine D2 receptor antagonism
Answer: D
Rationale: Typical antipsychotics primarily work by blocking dopamine D2 receptors in
the mesolimbic pathway.
8. Which second-generation antipsychotic requires regular blood monitoring
due to the risk of agranulocytosis?
A. Risperidone
B. Clozapine
C. Quetiapine
D. Olanzapine
Answer: B
Rationale: Clozapine can cause severe neutropenia/agranulocytosis, requiring mandatory
Absolute Neutrophil Count (ANC) monitoring.
