HESI PN CARDIOVASCULAR NURSING ACCURATE
COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE EXAM WITH ALL
POSSIBLE APPROVED WELL ELABORATED
PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT
VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES
PLUS EXPERT ANSWER KEY (100% CORRECT
VERIFIED SOLUTIONS) 2026-2027 CURRENTLY
UPDATED VERSION Q&A GUARANTEED PASS A+
INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
1. The nurse is assessing a client with angina pectoris. Which characteristic of
the pain is most indicative of this condition?
a. Sharp, stabbing pain that worsens with inspiration
b. Burning sensation in the epigastric area
c. Pressure or squeezing pain in the substernal area that may radiate to the
left arm
d. Dull ache in the lower back that is relieved by lying down
Answer: c. Pressure or squeezing pain in the substernal area that may
radiate to the left arm
Rationale: Angina pectoris is characterized by substernal pressure or
squeezing pain that often radiates to the left arm, jaw, or back. It is
typically precipitated by exertion or stress and relieved by rest or
nitroglycerin.
,2. A client is prescribed digoxin. Which finding would indicate digoxin toxicity?
a. Heart rate of 62 beats per minute
b. Serum digoxin level of 1.8 ng/mL
c. Yellow-green halos around visual fields
d. Serum potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L
Answer: c. Yellow-green halos around visual fields
Rationale: Visual disturbances such as yellow-green halos are classic signs
of digoxin toxicity. Therapeutic digoxin levels are 0.8-2.0 ng/mL, but
toxicity can occur even within this range, especially with hypokalemia.
3. The nurse is preparing to administer a beta-blocker to a client with
hypertension. Which assessment is most important prior to administration?
a. Blood pressure and heart rate
b. Respiratory rate and oxygen saturation
c. Temperature and skin turgor
d. Level of consciousness and pupil response
Answer: a. Blood pressure and heart rate
Rationale: Beta-blockers lower blood pressure and heart rate. The nurse
must assess these parameters before administration to prevent
bradycardia and hypotension.
4. A client is one-day post-myocardial infarction. Which complication should
the nurse monitor for during the first 24 hours?
a. Heart failure
b. Pericarditis
c. Cardiac dysrhythmias
d. Ventricular aneurysm
Answer: c. Cardiac dysrhythmias
Rationale: Dysrhythmias, especially ventricular dysrhythmias, are the
leading cause of death in the first 24 hours after an MI due to ischemic
changes and electrolyte imbalances.
5. The nurse is caring for a client with peripheral artery disease (PAD). Which
finding is consistent with this diagnosis?
a. Shiny, hairless skin on the lower extremities
b. Brownish discoloration around the ankles
, c. Thick, ridged toenails
d. Pallor of the foot when elevated, and rubor when dependent
Answer: d. Pallor of the foot when elevated, and rubor when dependent
Rationale: Pallor on elevation and rubor (redness) on dependency are
hallmark signs of PAD due to inadequate arterial blood flow and reactive
hyperemia.
6. A client with chronic venous insufficiency (CVI) asks the nurse why their legs
are swollen. Which response is most accurate?
a. "Your arteries are narrowed, reducing blood flow to your legs."
b. "The valves in your veins are damaged, causing blood to pool in your
legs."
c. "Your heart is not pumping effectively, causing fluid to back up."
d. "You have a blood clot blocking the deep veins in your leg."
Answer: b. "The valves in your veins are damaged, causing blood to pool in
your legs."
Rationale: CVI results from incompetent venous valves, which allow blood
to flow backward and pool in the lower extremities, leading to edema.
7. The nurse is teaching a client about lifestyle modifications to manage
hypertension. Which statement indicates a need for further teaching?
a. "I should limit my sodium intake to less than 2,300 mg per day."
b. "I can continue to drink alcohol as long as I limit it to two drinks per day."
c. "I need to lose weight if I am overweight."
d. "I should engage in moderate physical activity for at least 30 minutes
most days."
Answer: b. "I can continue to drink alcohol as long as I limit it to two drinks
per day."
Rationale: For hypertension management, alcohol should be limited to no
more than one drink per day for women and two for men. However, many
guidelines recommend even less or complete avoidance for better control.
8. The nurse is assessing a client’s jugular veins. Which finding indicates
elevated central venous pressure (CVP)?
a. Flat jugular veins when the client is supine
b. Visible jugular venous distention (JVD) when the client is sitting at a 45-
, degree angle
c. No visible pulsations in the jugular veins
d. Jugular veins that collapse when the client inhales
Answer: b. Visible jugular venous distention (JVD) when the client is sitting
at a 45-degree angle
Rationale: JVD that is visible when the head of the bed is elevated to 45
degrees is a sign of elevated CVP, which can occur with right-sided heart
failure or fluid overload.
9. A client is prescribed clopidogrel after a stent placement. What is the
primary purpose of this medication?
a. To dissolve the clot that caused the MI
b. To prevent platelet aggregation and thrombus formation
c. To dilate coronary arteries and improve blood flow
d. To lower serum cholesterol levels
Answer: b. To prevent platelet aggregation and thrombus formation
Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent that prevents platelet
aggregation, reducing the risk of stent thrombosis and subsequent MI or
stroke.
10. A client with heart failure is experiencing dyspnea and orthopnea. Which
intervention should the nurse implement first?
a. Administer oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula
b. Position the client in a high-Fowler's position
c. Administer a prescribed diuretic
d. Restrict oral fluid intake
Answer: b. Position the client in a high-Fowler's position
Rationale: High-Fowler's position uses gravity to reduce venous return
and decrease pulmonary congestion, which is the immediate priority to
relieve dyspnea and orthopnea.
11. The nurse is interpreting an EKG rhythm strip. Which component
represents ventricular depolarization?
a. P wave
b. QRS complex
c. T wave
COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE EXAM WITH ALL
POSSIBLE APPROVED WELL ELABORATED
PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT
VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES
PLUS EXPERT ANSWER KEY (100% CORRECT
VERIFIED SOLUTIONS) 2026-2027 CURRENTLY
UPDATED VERSION Q&A GUARANTEED PASS A+
INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
1. The nurse is assessing a client with angina pectoris. Which characteristic of
the pain is most indicative of this condition?
a. Sharp, stabbing pain that worsens with inspiration
b. Burning sensation in the epigastric area
c. Pressure or squeezing pain in the substernal area that may radiate to the
left arm
d. Dull ache in the lower back that is relieved by lying down
Answer: c. Pressure or squeezing pain in the substernal area that may
radiate to the left arm
Rationale: Angina pectoris is characterized by substernal pressure or
squeezing pain that often radiates to the left arm, jaw, or back. It is
typically precipitated by exertion or stress and relieved by rest or
nitroglycerin.
,2. A client is prescribed digoxin. Which finding would indicate digoxin toxicity?
a. Heart rate of 62 beats per minute
b. Serum digoxin level of 1.8 ng/mL
c. Yellow-green halos around visual fields
d. Serum potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L
Answer: c. Yellow-green halos around visual fields
Rationale: Visual disturbances such as yellow-green halos are classic signs
of digoxin toxicity. Therapeutic digoxin levels are 0.8-2.0 ng/mL, but
toxicity can occur even within this range, especially with hypokalemia.
3. The nurse is preparing to administer a beta-blocker to a client with
hypertension. Which assessment is most important prior to administration?
a. Blood pressure and heart rate
b. Respiratory rate and oxygen saturation
c. Temperature and skin turgor
d. Level of consciousness and pupil response
Answer: a. Blood pressure and heart rate
Rationale: Beta-blockers lower blood pressure and heart rate. The nurse
must assess these parameters before administration to prevent
bradycardia and hypotension.
4. A client is one-day post-myocardial infarction. Which complication should
the nurse monitor for during the first 24 hours?
a. Heart failure
b. Pericarditis
c. Cardiac dysrhythmias
d. Ventricular aneurysm
Answer: c. Cardiac dysrhythmias
Rationale: Dysrhythmias, especially ventricular dysrhythmias, are the
leading cause of death in the first 24 hours after an MI due to ischemic
changes and electrolyte imbalances.
5. The nurse is caring for a client with peripheral artery disease (PAD). Which
finding is consistent with this diagnosis?
a. Shiny, hairless skin on the lower extremities
b. Brownish discoloration around the ankles
, c. Thick, ridged toenails
d. Pallor of the foot when elevated, and rubor when dependent
Answer: d. Pallor of the foot when elevated, and rubor when dependent
Rationale: Pallor on elevation and rubor (redness) on dependency are
hallmark signs of PAD due to inadequate arterial blood flow and reactive
hyperemia.
6. A client with chronic venous insufficiency (CVI) asks the nurse why their legs
are swollen. Which response is most accurate?
a. "Your arteries are narrowed, reducing blood flow to your legs."
b. "The valves in your veins are damaged, causing blood to pool in your
legs."
c. "Your heart is not pumping effectively, causing fluid to back up."
d. "You have a blood clot blocking the deep veins in your leg."
Answer: b. "The valves in your veins are damaged, causing blood to pool in
your legs."
Rationale: CVI results from incompetent venous valves, which allow blood
to flow backward and pool in the lower extremities, leading to edema.
7. The nurse is teaching a client about lifestyle modifications to manage
hypertension. Which statement indicates a need for further teaching?
a. "I should limit my sodium intake to less than 2,300 mg per day."
b. "I can continue to drink alcohol as long as I limit it to two drinks per day."
c. "I need to lose weight if I am overweight."
d. "I should engage in moderate physical activity for at least 30 minutes
most days."
Answer: b. "I can continue to drink alcohol as long as I limit it to two drinks
per day."
Rationale: For hypertension management, alcohol should be limited to no
more than one drink per day for women and two for men. However, many
guidelines recommend even less or complete avoidance for better control.
8. The nurse is assessing a client’s jugular veins. Which finding indicates
elevated central venous pressure (CVP)?
a. Flat jugular veins when the client is supine
b. Visible jugular venous distention (JVD) when the client is sitting at a 45-
, degree angle
c. No visible pulsations in the jugular veins
d. Jugular veins that collapse when the client inhales
Answer: b. Visible jugular venous distention (JVD) when the client is sitting
at a 45-degree angle
Rationale: JVD that is visible when the head of the bed is elevated to 45
degrees is a sign of elevated CVP, which can occur with right-sided heart
failure or fluid overload.
9. A client is prescribed clopidogrel after a stent placement. What is the
primary purpose of this medication?
a. To dissolve the clot that caused the MI
b. To prevent platelet aggregation and thrombus formation
c. To dilate coronary arteries and improve blood flow
d. To lower serum cholesterol levels
Answer: b. To prevent platelet aggregation and thrombus formation
Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent that prevents platelet
aggregation, reducing the risk of stent thrombosis and subsequent MI or
stroke.
10. A client with heart failure is experiencing dyspnea and orthopnea. Which
intervention should the nurse implement first?
a. Administer oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula
b. Position the client in a high-Fowler's position
c. Administer a prescribed diuretic
d. Restrict oral fluid intake
Answer: b. Position the client in a high-Fowler's position
Rationale: High-Fowler's position uses gravity to reduce venous return
and decrease pulmonary congestion, which is the immediate priority to
relieve dyspnea and orthopnea.
11. The nurse is interpreting an EKG rhythm strip. Which component
represents ventricular depolarization?
a. P wave
b. QRS complex
c. T wave
