HESI PN ADULT HEALTH ACCURATE
COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE EXAM WITH ALL
POSSIBLE APPROVED WELL ELABORATED
PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT
VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES
PLUS EXPERT ANSWER KEY (100% CORRECT
VERIFIED SOLUTIONS) 2026-2027 CURRENTLY
UPDATED VERSION Q&A GUARANTEED PASS A+
INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
Question 1
A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which assessment finding
indicates that the medication is having the desired therapeutic effect?
A. Increased jugular venous distension
B. Weight loss of 2 pounds in 24 hours
C. Blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg
D. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
Correct Answer: B
*Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to reduce fluid volume in heart
failure. A weight loss of 1-2 pounds per day indicates effective diuresis and
reduction of edema. Increased jugular venous distension (A) suggests worsening
fluid overload. Hypotension (C) could indicate excessive diuresis but is not the
,desired therapeutic effect. Tachypnea (D) may indicate respiratory distress or
persistent fluid overload.
Question 2
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has an oxygen
saturation of 88% on room air. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Administer oxygen at 2 L per nasal cannula
B. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position
C. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe
D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
Correct Answer: A
*Rationale: For a client with COPD, an oxygen saturation below 90% indicates
hypoxemia. The priority is to administer supplemental oxygen to improve
oxygenation. While positioning (B) and breathing exercises (C) are beneficial, they
are not the priority when saturation is low. Notifying the provider (D) is important
but should occur after initiating oxygen therapy.
Question 3
A client is receiving a blood transfusion and develops chills, back pain, and
hypotension. What is the nurse's immediate action?
A. Slow the infusion rate
B. Stop the transfusion
C. Administer diphenhydramine
D. Notify the blood bank
Correct Answer: B
*Rationale: These signs indicate a possible hemolytic transfusion reaction. The
immediate action is to stop the transfusion to prevent further reaction. After
stopping, the nurse should maintain IV access with normal saline, notify the
healthcare provider, and send the blood bag and tubing to the blood bank.
Slowing the infusion (A) is not sufficient; the transfusion must be stopped.
Antihistamines (C) are not the first-line intervention for a hemolytic reaction.
Notifying the blood bank (D) is necessary but occurs after stopping the
transfusion.
Question 4
A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed metformin. Which adverse
,effect should the nurse include in client teaching?
A. Weight gain
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Lactic acidosis
D. Bradycardia
Correct Answer: C
*Rationale: Metformin is a biguanide that can cause lactic acidosis, especially in
clients with renal impairment, liver disease, or those who consume excessive
alcohol. Metformin typically causes weight loss or is weight-neutral (A). It does not
typically cause hypoglycemia when used alone (B). Bradycardia (D) is not
associated with metformin use.
Question 5
A client is 2 days post-operative following abdominal surgery. Which finding
indicates a potential wound infection?
A. Serosanguinous drainage
B. Wound edges well-approximated
C. Purulent drainage with foul odor
D. Mild erythema at the incision site
Correct Answer: C
*Rationale: Purulent drainage with a foul odor is a classic sign of wound infection.
Serosanguinous drainage (A) is normal in the early post-operative period. Well-
approximated edges (B) indicate good healing. Mild erythema (D) can be a normal
inflammatory response immediately post-operatively but may also be an early
sign of infection; purulent drainage is a more definitive sign.
Question 6
A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which adverse effect is most
important for the nurse to monitor?
A. Dry cough
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Angioedema
D. Hypokalemia
Correct Answer: C
*Rationale: Angioedema is a potentially life-threatening adverse effect of ACE
, inhibitors like lisinopril, characterized by swelling of the face, lips, tongue, and
airway. While dry cough (A) and hyperkalemia (B) are also adverse effects of ACE
inhibitors, angioedema is the most critical to monitor for due to its risk of airway
compromise. Lisinopril causes hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia (D).
Question 7
A client is admitted with pneumonia. Which assessment finding requires
immediate intervention?
A. Temperature of 38.5°C (101.3°F)
B. Productive cough with green sputum
C. Oxygen saturation of 89% on room air
D. Chest pain with deep inspiration
Correct Answer: C
*Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 89% indicates hypoxemia and requires
immediate intervention with supplemental oxygen to prevent further respiratory
compromise. Fever (A), productive cough (B), and pleuritic chest pain (D) are all
expected findings in pneumonia and, while they require treatment, do not require
immediate action like hypoxemia does.
Question 8
A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease reports black, tarry stools. What is
the nurse's priority action?
A. Administer an antacid
B. Encourage increased fluid intake
C. Assess the client's vital signs
D. Prepare for an endoscopy
Correct Answer: C
*Rationale: Black, tarry stools (melena) indicate upper gastrointestinal bleeding.
The priority is to assess the client's hemodynamic stability by checking vital signs
for signs of shock (tachycardia, hypotension). After assessment, the nurse would
notify the provider; an endoscopy (D) may be ordered but is not the first action.
Antacids (A) are not appropriate for active bleeding.
Question 9
A client with chronic renal failure is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which laboratory
value should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before the procedure?
COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE EXAM WITH ALL
POSSIBLE APPROVED WELL ELABORATED
PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT
VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES
PLUS EXPERT ANSWER KEY (100% CORRECT
VERIFIED SOLUTIONS) 2026-2027 CURRENTLY
UPDATED VERSION Q&A GUARANTEED PASS A+
INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
Question 1
A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which assessment finding
indicates that the medication is having the desired therapeutic effect?
A. Increased jugular venous distension
B. Weight loss of 2 pounds in 24 hours
C. Blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg
D. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
Correct Answer: B
*Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to reduce fluid volume in heart
failure. A weight loss of 1-2 pounds per day indicates effective diuresis and
reduction of edema. Increased jugular venous distension (A) suggests worsening
fluid overload. Hypotension (C) could indicate excessive diuresis but is not the
,desired therapeutic effect. Tachypnea (D) may indicate respiratory distress or
persistent fluid overload.
Question 2
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has an oxygen
saturation of 88% on room air. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Administer oxygen at 2 L per nasal cannula
B. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position
C. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe
D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
Correct Answer: A
*Rationale: For a client with COPD, an oxygen saturation below 90% indicates
hypoxemia. The priority is to administer supplemental oxygen to improve
oxygenation. While positioning (B) and breathing exercises (C) are beneficial, they
are not the priority when saturation is low. Notifying the provider (D) is important
but should occur after initiating oxygen therapy.
Question 3
A client is receiving a blood transfusion and develops chills, back pain, and
hypotension. What is the nurse's immediate action?
A. Slow the infusion rate
B. Stop the transfusion
C. Administer diphenhydramine
D. Notify the blood bank
Correct Answer: B
*Rationale: These signs indicate a possible hemolytic transfusion reaction. The
immediate action is to stop the transfusion to prevent further reaction. After
stopping, the nurse should maintain IV access with normal saline, notify the
healthcare provider, and send the blood bag and tubing to the blood bank.
Slowing the infusion (A) is not sufficient; the transfusion must be stopped.
Antihistamines (C) are not the first-line intervention for a hemolytic reaction.
Notifying the blood bank (D) is necessary but occurs after stopping the
transfusion.
Question 4
A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed metformin. Which adverse
,effect should the nurse include in client teaching?
A. Weight gain
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Lactic acidosis
D. Bradycardia
Correct Answer: C
*Rationale: Metformin is a biguanide that can cause lactic acidosis, especially in
clients with renal impairment, liver disease, or those who consume excessive
alcohol. Metformin typically causes weight loss or is weight-neutral (A). It does not
typically cause hypoglycemia when used alone (B). Bradycardia (D) is not
associated with metformin use.
Question 5
A client is 2 days post-operative following abdominal surgery. Which finding
indicates a potential wound infection?
A. Serosanguinous drainage
B. Wound edges well-approximated
C. Purulent drainage with foul odor
D. Mild erythema at the incision site
Correct Answer: C
*Rationale: Purulent drainage with a foul odor is a classic sign of wound infection.
Serosanguinous drainage (A) is normal in the early post-operative period. Well-
approximated edges (B) indicate good healing. Mild erythema (D) can be a normal
inflammatory response immediately post-operatively but may also be an early
sign of infection; purulent drainage is a more definitive sign.
Question 6
A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which adverse effect is most
important for the nurse to monitor?
A. Dry cough
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Angioedema
D. Hypokalemia
Correct Answer: C
*Rationale: Angioedema is a potentially life-threatening adverse effect of ACE
, inhibitors like lisinopril, characterized by swelling of the face, lips, tongue, and
airway. While dry cough (A) and hyperkalemia (B) are also adverse effects of ACE
inhibitors, angioedema is the most critical to monitor for due to its risk of airway
compromise. Lisinopril causes hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia (D).
Question 7
A client is admitted with pneumonia. Which assessment finding requires
immediate intervention?
A. Temperature of 38.5°C (101.3°F)
B. Productive cough with green sputum
C. Oxygen saturation of 89% on room air
D. Chest pain with deep inspiration
Correct Answer: C
*Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 89% indicates hypoxemia and requires
immediate intervention with supplemental oxygen to prevent further respiratory
compromise. Fever (A), productive cough (B), and pleuritic chest pain (D) are all
expected findings in pneumonia and, while they require treatment, do not require
immediate action like hypoxemia does.
Question 8
A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease reports black, tarry stools. What is
the nurse's priority action?
A. Administer an antacid
B. Encourage increased fluid intake
C. Assess the client's vital signs
D. Prepare for an endoscopy
Correct Answer: C
*Rationale: Black, tarry stools (melena) indicate upper gastrointestinal bleeding.
The priority is to assess the client's hemodynamic stability by checking vital signs
for signs of shock (tachycardia, hypotension). After assessment, the nurse would
notify the provider; an endoscopy (D) may be ordered but is not the first action.
Antacids (A) are not appropriate for active bleeding.
Question 9
A client with chronic renal failure is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which laboratory
value should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before the procedure?
