HESI LPN FUNDAMENTALS 2 EXAM PRACTICE
QUESTIONS AND RATIONALE GUIDE 2026
◉ During the initial morning assessment, a male client denies
dysuria but reports that his urine appears dark amber. Which
intervention should the nurse implement?
A. Provide additional coffee on the client's breakfast tray.
B. Exchange the client's grape juice for cranberry juice.
C. Bring the client additional fruit at mid-morning.
D. Encourage additional oral intake of juices and water. Answer: D.
Encourage additional oral intake of juices and water.
◉ Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement
for a male client who is experiencing urinary retention?
A. Apply a condom catheter
B. Apply a skin protectant
C. Encourage increased fluid intake
D. Assess for bladder distention Answer: D. Assess the bladder for
distention (Urinary retention is the inability to void all urine
collected in the bladder, which leads to uncomfortable bladder
distention (D). (A and B) are useful actions to protect the skin of a
client with urinary incontinence. (C) may worsen the bladder
distention.)
,◉ A client with acute hemorrhagic anemia is to receive four units of
packed RBCs as rapidly as possible. Which intervention is most
important for the nurse to implement?
A. Obtain the pre-transfusion hemoglobin level.
B. Prime the tubing and prepare a blood pump set-up
C. Monitor vital signs q 15 min for the first hour.
D. Ensure the accuracy of the blood type match. Answer: D. Ensure
the accuracy of the blood type match.
(ALL interventions should be implemented prior to administering
blood, but (D) has the highest priority. Any time blood is
administered the nurse should ensure the accuracy of the blood type
match in order to prevent a possible hemolytic reaction.)
◉ A male client being discharged with a prescription for the
bronchodilator theophylline tells the nurse that he understands he is
to take three doses of the medication each day. Since, at the time of
discharge, time-released capsules are not available, which dosing
schedule should the nurse advise the client to follow? Answer: 8 AM,
4 PM, and midnight
(Theophylline should be administered on a regular around the clock
schedule to provide the best bronchodilating effect and reduce the
potential for adverse effects.)
◉ A client is to receive 10 mEq of KCl diluted in 250 mL of normal
saline over 4 hours. At what rate should the nurse set the client's
intravenous infusion pump? Answer: 63 mL/hr
,◉ When evaluating a client's plan of care, the nurse determines that
a desire outcome was not achieved. Which action should the nurse
implement first?
A. Establish a new nursing diagnosis.
B. Note which actions were not implemented.
C. Add additional nursing orders to the plan.
D. Collaborate with the HCP to make changes. Answer: B. Note which
actions were not implemented.
(First, the nurse should review which actions in the original plan
were not implemented (B) in order to determine why the original
plan did not produce the desired outcome. Appropriate revisions
can then be made, which may include revising the expected
outcome, or identifying a new nursing diagnosis (A). (C) may be
needed if the nursing actions were unsuccessful, or were unable to
be implemented. (D) other members of the healthcare team may be
necessary to collaborate changes once the nurse determines why the
original plan did not produce the desired outcome.
◉ Which snack food is best for the nurse to provide a client with
myasthenia graves who is at risk for altered nutritional status?
A. chocolate pudding
B. graham crackers
C. sugar free gelatin
D. apple slices Answer: A. chocolate pudding
, (The client with myasthenia graves is at high risk for altered
nutrition because of fatigue and muscle weakness resulting in
dysphagia. Snacks that are semisolid, such as pudding (A) are easy to
swallow and require minimal chewing effort, and provide calories
and protein. (C) does not provide any nutritional value. (B and D)
require energy to chew and are more difficult to swallow than
pudding.)
◉ The nurse is instructing a client with high cholesterol about diet
and life style modification. What comment from the client indicates
that the teaching has been effective?
A. "If I exercise at least two times weekly for one hour, I will lower
my cholesterol."
B. "I need to avoid eating proteins, including red meat."
C. "I will limit my intake of beef to 4 ounces per week."
D. "My blood level of low density lipoproteins needs to increase."
Answer: C. "I will limit my intake of beef to 4 ounces per week."
(Limiting saturated fat from animal food sources to no more than 4
ounces per week (C) is an important diet modification for lowering
cholesterol. To be effective in reducing cholesterol, the client should
exercise 30 minutes per day, or at least 4 to 6 times per week (A).
Red meat and all proteins do not need to be eliminated (B) to lower
cholesterol, but should be restricted to lean cuts of red meat and
smaller portions (2-ounce servings). The low density lipoproteins
(D) need to decrease rather than increase.)
QUESTIONS AND RATIONALE GUIDE 2026
◉ During the initial morning assessment, a male client denies
dysuria but reports that his urine appears dark amber. Which
intervention should the nurse implement?
A. Provide additional coffee on the client's breakfast tray.
B. Exchange the client's grape juice for cranberry juice.
C. Bring the client additional fruit at mid-morning.
D. Encourage additional oral intake of juices and water. Answer: D.
Encourage additional oral intake of juices and water.
◉ Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement
for a male client who is experiencing urinary retention?
A. Apply a condom catheter
B. Apply a skin protectant
C. Encourage increased fluid intake
D. Assess for bladder distention Answer: D. Assess the bladder for
distention (Urinary retention is the inability to void all urine
collected in the bladder, which leads to uncomfortable bladder
distention (D). (A and B) are useful actions to protect the skin of a
client with urinary incontinence. (C) may worsen the bladder
distention.)
,◉ A client with acute hemorrhagic anemia is to receive four units of
packed RBCs as rapidly as possible. Which intervention is most
important for the nurse to implement?
A. Obtain the pre-transfusion hemoglobin level.
B. Prime the tubing and prepare a blood pump set-up
C. Monitor vital signs q 15 min for the first hour.
D. Ensure the accuracy of the blood type match. Answer: D. Ensure
the accuracy of the blood type match.
(ALL interventions should be implemented prior to administering
blood, but (D) has the highest priority. Any time blood is
administered the nurse should ensure the accuracy of the blood type
match in order to prevent a possible hemolytic reaction.)
◉ A male client being discharged with a prescription for the
bronchodilator theophylline tells the nurse that he understands he is
to take three doses of the medication each day. Since, at the time of
discharge, time-released capsules are not available, which dosing
schedule should the nurse advise the client to follow? Answer: 8 AM,
4 PM, and midnight
(Theophylline should be administered on a regular around the clock
schedule to provide the best bronchodilating effect and reduce the
potential for adverse effects.)
◉ A client is to receive 10 mEq of KCl diluted in 250 mL of normal
saline over 4 hours. At what rate should the nurse set the client's
intravenous infusion pump? Answer: 63 mL/hr
,◉ When evaluating a client's plan of care, the nurse determines that
a desire outcome was not achieved. Which action should the nurse
implement first?
A. Establish a new nursing diagnosis.
B. Note which actions were not implemented.
C. Add additional nursing orders to the plan.
D. Collaborate with the HCP to make changes. Answer: B. Note which
actions were not implemented.
(First, the nurse should review which actions in the original plan
were not implemented (B) in order to determine why the original
plan did not produce the desired outcome. Appropriate revisions
can then be made, which may include revising the expected
outcome, or identifying a new nursing diagnosis (A). (C) may be
needed if the nursing actions were unsuccessful, or were unable to
be implemented. (D) other members of the healthcare team may be
necessary to collaborate changes once the nurse determines why the
original plan did not produce the desired outcome.
◉ Which snack food is best for the nurse to provide a client with
myasthenia graves who is at risk for altered nutritional status?
A. chocolate pudding
B. graham crackers
C. sugar free gelatin
D. apple slices Answer: A. chocolate pudding
, (The client with myasthenia graves is at high risk for altered
nutrition because of fatigue and muscle weakness resulting in
dysphagia. Snacks that are semisolid, such as pudding (A) are easy to
swallow and require minimal chewing effort, and provide calories
and protein. (C) does not provide any nutritional value. (B and D)
require energy to chew and are more difficult to swallow than
pudding.)
◉ The nurse is instructing a client with high cholesterol about diet
and life style modification. What comment from the client indicates
that the teaching has been effective?
A. "If I exercise at least two times weekly for one hour, I will lower
my cholesterol."
B. "I need to avoid eating proteins, including red meat."
C. "I will limit my intake of beef to 4 ounces per week."
D. "My blood level of low density lipoproteins needs to increase."
Answer: C. "I will limit my intake of beef to 4 ounces per week."
(Limiting saturated fat from animal food sources to no more than 4
ounces per week (C) is an important diet modification for lowering
cholesterol. To be effective in reducing cholesterol, the client should
exercise 30 minutes per day, or at least 4 to 6 times per week (A).
Red meat and all proteins do not need to be eliminated (B) to lower
cholesterol, but should be restricted to lean cuts of red meat and
smaller portions (2-ounce servings). The low density lipoproteins
(D) need to decrease rather than increase.)
