Med Surge HESI Real Exam
Med Surge HESI Real Exam 3 200 Questions
Test Bank Actual Exam 2026/2027 – 100%
Verified | Detailed Rationales – Pass
Guaranteed – A+ Graded
A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyphagia. Which outcome statement is the
priority for this client?
Fluid and electrolyte balance.
Prevention of water toxicity.
Reduced glucose in the urine.
Adequate cellular nourishment. –
Correct Answer :Adequate cellular nourishment.
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, Med Surge HESI Real Exam
Diabetes mellitus Type 1 is characterized by hyperglycemia that precipitates glucosuria and
polyuria (frequent urination), polydipsia (excessive thirst), and polyphagia (excessive hunger).
Polyphagia is a consequence of cellular malnourishment when insulin deficiency prevents
utilization of glucose into the cell for energy, so the outcome statement should include
stabilization of adequate cellular nutrition which is done by providing the insulin supplement
the client needs.
An older client is admitted with a diagnosis of bacterial pneumonia. Which symptom should
the nurse report to the health care provider after assessing the client?
A.
Leukocytosis and febrile
B.
Polycythemia and crackles
C.
Pharyngitis and sputum production
D.
Confusion and tachycardia –
Correct Answer :D
Rationale:
The onset of pneumonia in the older client may be signaled by general deterioration,
confusion, increased heart rate, and/or increased respiratory rate. Options A, B, and C are
often absent in the older client with bacterial pneumonia.
A client in the emergency department is bleeding profusely from a gunshot wound to the
abdomen. What action should the nurse immediately?
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, Med Surge HESI Real Exam
A.
Place the client in a 45-degree Trendelenburg position to promote cerebral blood flow.
B.
Turn the client prone to place pressure on the abdominal wound to help staunch the
bleeding.
C.
Maintain the client in a supine position to reduce diaphragmatic pressure and visualize the
wound.
D.
Put the client on the right side to apply pressure to the liver and spleen to stop hemorrhaging.
–
Correct Answer :C
Rationale:
Placing the client in a supine position reduces diaphragmatic pressure, thereby enhancing
oxygenation, and allows for visualization of the abdominal wound. Option A compromises
diaphragmatic expansion and inhibits pressoreceptor activity. Option B places the client at
risk of evisceration of the abdominal wound and increased bleeding. Option D will not stop
internal bleeding in the liver and spleen caused by the gunshot wound.
The client is return demonstrating wrapping of the left limb amputated above the knee. The
nurse evaluates the client is starting the wrapping method correctly when the client places
the end of the bandage at which point?
A.
Around the waist
B.
At the inner aspect of the left stump
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, Med Surge HESI Real Exam
C.
At the outer aspect of the left stump
D.
At the left groin area –
Correct Answer :A
Rationale:
The waist is the anchor point for the bandage for an above the knee amputation.
A postoperative client receives a Schedule II opioid analgesic for pain. Which assessment
finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
A.
Hypoactive bowel sounds with abdominal distention
B.
Client reports continued pain of 8 on a 10-point scale
C.
Respiratory rate of 12 breaths/min, with O2 saturation of 85%
D.
Client reports nausea after receiving the medication –
Correct Answer :C
Rationale:
P a g e 4 | 134
Med Surge HESI Real Exam 3 200 Questions
Test Bank Actual Exam 2026/2027 – 100%
Verified | Detailed Rationales – Pass
Guaranteed – A+ Graded
A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyphagia. Which outcome statement is the
priority for this client?
Fluid and electrolyte balance.
Prevention of water toxicity.
Reduced glucose in the urine.
Adequate cellular nourishment. –
Correct Answer :Adequate cellular nourishment.
P a g e 1 | 134
, Med Surge HESI Real Exam
Diabetes mellitus Type 1 is characterized by hyperglycemia that precipitates glucosuria and
polyuria (frequent urination), polydipsia (excessive thirst), and polyphagia (excessive hunger).
Polyphagia is a consequence of cellular malnourishment when insulin deficiency prevents
utilization of glucose into the cell for energy, so the outcome statement should include
stabilization of adequate cellular nutrition which is done by providing the insulin supplement
the client needs.
An older client is admitted with a diagnosis of bacterial pneumonia. Which symptom should
the nurse report to the health care provider after assessing the client?
A.
Leukocytosis and febrile
B.
Polycythemia and crackles
C.
Pharyngitis and sputum production
D.
Confusion and tachycardia –
Correct Answer :D
Rationale:
The onset of pneumonia in the older client may be signaled by general deterioration,
confusion, increased heart rate, and/or increased respiratory rate. Options A, B, and C are
often absent in the older client with bacterial pneumonia.
A client in the emergency department is bleeding profusely from a gunshot wound to the
abdomen. What action should the nurse immediately?
P a g e 2 | 134
, Med Surge HESI Real Exam
A.
Place the client in a 45-degree Trendelenburg position to promote cerebral blood flow.
B.
Turn the client prone to place pressure on the abdominal wound to help staunch the
bleeding.
C.
Maintain the client in a supine position to reduce diaphragmatic pressure and visualize the
wound.
D.
Put the client on the right side to apply pressure to the liver and spleen to stop hemorrhaging.
–
Correct Answer :C
Rationale:
Placing the client in a supine position reduces diaphragmatic pressure, thereby enhancing
oxygenation, and allows for visualization of the abdominal wound. Option A compromises
diaphragmatic expansion and inhibits pressoreceptor activity. Option B places the client at
risk of evisceration of the abdominal wound and increased bleeding. Option D will not stop
internal bleeding in the liver and spleen caused by the gunshot wound.
The client is return demonstrating wrapping of the left limb amputated above the knee. The
nurse evaluates the client is starting the wrapping method correctly when the client places
the end of the bandage at which point?
A.
Around the waist
B.
At the inner aspect of the left stump
P a g e 3 | 134
, Med Surge HESI Real Exam
C.
At the outer aspect of the left stump
D.
At the left groin area –
Correct Answer :A
Rationale:
The waist is the anchor point for the bandage for an above the knee amputation.
A postoperative client receives a Schedule II opioid analgesic for pain. Which assessment
finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
A.
Hypoactive bowel sounds with abdominal distention
B.
Client reports continued pain of 8 on a 10-point scale
C.
Respiratory rate of 12 breaths/min, with O2 saturation of 85%
D.
Client reports nausea after receiving the medication –
Correct Answer :C
Rationale:
P a g e 4 | 134
