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NR 293 Exam 2 Pharmacology for Nursing Questions & Answers | 2026/2027 Chamberlain

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This document helps you master the NR 293 Pharmacology for Nursing Practice Exam 2 at Chamberlain University via targeted Q&A with detailed rationales. It covers cardiovascular pharmacology including antihypertensives (beta-blockers, ACE inhibitors, ARBs, calcium channel blockers), diuretics (loop, thiazide, potassium-sparing), anticoagulants (heparin, warfarin, enoxaparin) and antiplatelet agents, lipid-lowering agents (statins, fibrates), endocrine medications (insulin, oral antidiabetics, thyroid drugs), and electrolyte imbalances and adverse effect management. Engineered to maximize retention and sharpen critical understanding, this test pack simplifies complex content, saving preparation time and helping you secure an A on your Exam 2 Assessment.

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,NR 293 Exam 2 Pharmacology for Nursing Questions & Answers |
2026/2027 | CHAMBERLAIN

1.** A patient is prescribed lisinopril for hypertension. The nurse should
monitor the patient for which common adverse effect?



A) Hyperkalemia and persistent dry cough

B) Tachycardia and weight gain

C) Hypokalemia and diarrhea

D) Bradycardia and constipation



**Correct Answer:** A) Hyperkalemia and persistent dry cough



**Rationale:** ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril commonly cause a persistent
dry cough due to bradykinin accumulation. They also cause hyperkalemia by
reducing aldosterone secretion. Other side effects include angioedema and
hypotension. Patients should be advised to report a cough that does not
resolve, as it may require switching to an ARB.



---



**2.** A patient with heart failure is prescribed furosemide IV. Which
electrolyte imbalance should the nurse anticipate?



A) Hyperkalemia

B) Hypokalemia

C) Hypercalcemia

D) Hypermagnesemia



**Correct Answer:** B) Hypokalemia

,**Rationale:** Furosemide is a loop diuretic that blocks sodium and chloride
reabsorption in the ascending loop of Henle, leading to potassium wasting. It
also causes hypocalcemia, hypomagnesemia, hyponatremia, and
hyperuricemia. Serum electrolytes should be monitored closely, and
potassium supplementation may be required.



---



**3.** A patient is prescribed verapamil for hypertension and angina. Which
adverse effect should the nurse include in patient teaching?



A) Diarrhea and tachycardia

B) Constipation and orthostatic hypotension

C) Hyperglycemia and weight loss

D) Bronchospasm and bradycardia



**Correct Answer:** B) Constipation and orthostatic hypotension



**Rationale:** Verapamil is a nondihydropyridine calcium channel blocker.
Constipation is a common adverse effect due to decreased GI motility.
Orthostatic hypotension can occur due to vasodilation. Patients should be
advised to increase fiber and fluid intake and to rise slowly from sitting or
lying positions.



---



**4.** A patient with angina is prescribed amlodipine. The nurse understands
that amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker that primarily treats:

, A) Cardiac dysrhythmias

B) Hypertension and angina pectoris

C) Heart failure

D) Atrial fibrillation



**Correct Answer:** B) Hypertension and angina pectoris



**Rationale:** Amlodipine is a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker that
primarily treats hypertension and angina pectoris by causing peripheral
vasodilation. Unlike verapamil and diltiazem, it has minimal effects on
cardiac conduction and is not used for dysrhythmias.



---



**5.** A patient is prescribed diltiazem. The nurse understands that diltiazem
is unique among calcium channel blockers because it can also treat:



A) Hypertension only

B) Angina only

C) Cardiac dysrhythmias

D) Peripheral edema



**Correct Answer:** C) Cardiac dysrhythmias



**Rationale:** Diltiazem and verapamil are nondihydropyridine calcium
channel blockers that have cardiac effects, including treatment of atrial
fibrillation, atrial flutter, and supraventricular tachycardia (SVT).
Dihydropyridines like amlodipine and nifedipine primarily treat hypertension
and angina.

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