FINAL FNP EXAM (Family Nurse Practitioner) NEWEST
VERSION ACTUAL 160 QUESTION AND CORRECT
DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS FROM VERIFIED SOURCES
BY EXPERT RATED A GRADE. FNP FAMILY NURSE
PRACTITIONER !!!!!
QUESTION 1
A patient injures an ankle while playing soccer and reports rolling the foot inward while
falling, with immediate pain and swelling of the lateral part of the joint. The patient is
able to bear weight and denies hearing an audible sound at the time of injury. What
does this history indicate?
a) Likely ankle sprain with a possible fracture
b) Complete rupture of the lateral ligaments
c) Achilles tendon rupture
d) Stress fracture of the distal fibula
CORRECT ANS: a
Expert Rationale
The mechanism of injury—inversion of the foot (rolling inward)—is the most common
mechanism for an ankle sprain, affecting the lateral ligaments. Immediate pain and
swelling are consistent with a sprain. However, the ability to bear weight does not rule
out a fracture, especially if there is significant swelling. The absence of an audible sound
does not exclude a fracture. Ottawa ankle rules should be applied to determine if
radiographs are needed. Therefore, the history indicates a likely ankle sprain with a
possible fracture.
QUESTION 2
A patient diagnosed with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) and presenting with severe
neutropenia and anemia is given erythropoietin (EPO) with improvement in hemoglobin.
,Which intervention has been shown to prevent infection in patients with MDS who have
severe neutropenia?
a) Prophylactic treatment with fluoroquinolones
b) Routine administration of granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)
c) Prophylactic intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG)
d) Corticosteroid therapy
CORRECT ANS: a
Expert Rationale
Patients with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) and severe neutropenia are at high risk
for bacterial infections. Prophylactic treatment with fluoroquinolones (such as
levofloxacin or ciprofloxacin) has been shown to reduce the incidence of infections in
this population. G-CSF may be used to improve neutrophil counts but is not primarily an
infection-prevention strategy. IVIG and corticosteroids are not standard prophylactic
measures for infection prevention in MDS. Therefore, prophylactic fluoroquinolones are
the correct answer.
QUESTION 3
What is the most important role of the primary care provider in cancer management?
a) Counseling about healthy practices to reduce risk factors
b) Performing cancer screenings
c) Referring patients to oncology specialists
d) Managing chemotherapy side effects
CORRECT ANS: a
Expert Rationale
The primary care provider plays a crucial role in cancer prevention and early detection.
The most important role is counseling patients about healthy lifestyle practices—such as
smoking cessation, healthy diet, physical activity, and sun protection—to reduce
modifiable risk factors for cancer. While screening, referral, and management of side
effects are also important, prevention through patient education is the most impactful
,role. Therefore, counseling about healthy practices to reduce risk factors is the correct
answer.
QUESTION 4
A patient being treated for cancer has had chemotherapy within the past 2 weeks and
comes to the primary care clinic with a fever of 38.5°C. What is the initial action?
a) Obtain a STAT complete blood count (CBC) with differential.
b) Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics immediately.
c) Perform a chest X-ray.
d) Order blood cultures and a urinalysis.
CORRECT ANS: a
Expert Rationale
A patient with a fever within 2 weeks of chemotherapy is at high risk for febrile
neutropenia, a life-threatening complication. The initial action is to obtain a STAT
complete blood count (CBC) with differential to assess the neutrophil count. If the
patient is neutropenic, immediate antibiotics are indicated. While blood cultures and a
chest X-ray may be part of the workup, the CBC is the priority. Therefore, obtaining a
STAT CBC with differential is the correct initial action.
QUESTION 5
What is the purpose of radiation treatment prior to surgical resection of a tumor?
a) To debulk the tumor mass
b) To eliminate all cancer cells
c) To prevent metastasis
d) To reduce the risk of infection
CORRECT ANS: a
Expert Rationale
, Radiation therapy administered prior to surgical resection is called neoadjuvant
radiotherapy. Its primary purpose is to shrink (debulk) the tumor, making it easier to
resect surgically. This may also improve surgical outcomes and reduce the risk of local
recurrence. It is not intended to eliminate all cancer cells, prevent metastasis, or reduce
infection risk. Therefore, the purpose is to debulk the tumor mass.
QUESTION 6
An oncology specialist recommends placement of radioactive isotopes in capsules near
a patient's tumor. What is this form of radiation therapy called?
a) Brachytherapy
b) Teletherapy
c) External beam radiation
d) Systemic radiation therapy
CORRECT ANS: a
Expert Rationale
Brachytherapy is a form of radiation therapy in which radioactive isotopes are placed
directly into or near the tumor site. This allows for a high dose of radiation to be
delivered to the tumor while minimizing exposure to surrounding healthy tissues.
Teletherapy and external beam radiation refer to radiation delivered from an external
source. Systemic radiation therapy involves radioactive substances given orally or
intravenously. Therefore, the correct answer is brachytherapy.
QUESTION 7
Which chemotherapeutic agents are hormonal therapies referred to as selective
estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs)? (Select all that apply.)
a) Anastrozole
b) Letrozole
c) Tamoxifen
VERSION ACTUAL 160 QUESTION AND CORRECT
DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS FROM VERIFIED SOURCES
BY EXPERT RATED A GRADE. FNP FAMILY NURSE
PRACTITIONER !!!!!
QUESTION 1
A patient injures an ankle while playing soccer and reports rolling the foot inward while
falling, with immediate pain and swelling of the lateral part of the joint. The patient is
able to bear weight and denies hearing an audible sound at the time of injury. What
does this history indicate?
a) Likely ankle sprain with a possible fracture
b) Complete rupture of the lateral ligaments
c) Achilles tendon rupture
d) Stress fracture of the distal fibula
CORRECT ANS: a
Expert Rationale
The mechanism of injury—inversion of the foot (rolling inward)—is the most common
mechanism for an ankle sprain, affecting the lateral ligaments. Immediate pain and
swelling are consistent with a sprain. However, the ability to bear weight does not rule
out a fracture, especially if there is significant swelling. The absence of an audible sound
does not exclude a fracture. Ottawa ankle rules should be applied to determine if
radiographs are needed. Therefore, the history indicates a likely ankle sprain with a
possible fracture.
QUESTION 2
A patient diagnosed with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) and presenting with severe
neutropenia and anemia is given erythropoietin (EPO) with improvement in hemoglobin.
,Which intervention has been shown to prevent infection in patients with MDS who have
severe neutropenia?
a) Prophylactic treatment with fluoroquinolones
b) Routine administration of granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)
c) Prophylactic intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG)
d) Corticosteroid therapy
CORRECT ANS: a
Expert Rationale
Patients with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) and severe neutropenia are at high risk
for bacterial infections. Prophylactic treatment with fluoroquinolones (such as
levofloxacin or ciprofloxacin) has been shown to reduce the incidence of infections in
this population. G-CSF may be used to improve neutrophil counts but is not primarily an
infection-prevention strategy. IVIG and corticosteroids are not standard prophylactic
measures for infection prevention in MDS. Therefore, prophylactic fluoroquinolones are
the correct answer.
QUESTION 3
What is the most important role of the primary care provider in cancer management?
a) Counseling about healthy practices to reduce risk factors
b) Performing cancer screenings
c) Referring patients to oncology specialists
d) Managing chemotherapy side effects
CORRECT ANS: a
Expert Rationale
The primary care provider plays a crucial role in cancer prevention and early detection.
The most important role is counseling patients about healthy lifestyle practices—such as
smoking cessation, healthy diet, physical activity, and sun protection—to reduce
modifiable risk factors for cancer. While screening, referral, and management of side
effects are also important, prevention through patient education is the most impactful
,role. Therefore, counseling about healthy practices to reduce risk factors is the correct
answer.
QUESTION 4
A patient being treated for cancer has had chemotherapy within the past 2 weeks and
comes to the primary care clinic with a fever of 38.5°C. What is the initial action?
a) Obtain a STAT complete blood count (CBC) with differential.
b) Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics immediately.
c) Perform a chest X-ray.
d) Order blood cultures and a urinalysis.
CORRECT ANS: a
Expert Rationale
A patient with a fever within 2 weeks of chemotherapy is at high risk for febrile
neutropenia, a life-threatening complication. The initial action is to obtain a STAT
complete blood count (CBC) with differential to assess the neutrophil count. If the
patient is neutropenic, immediate antibiotics are indicated. While blood cultures and a
chest X-ray may be part of the workup, the CBC is the priority. Therefore, obtaining a
STAT CBC with differential is the correct initial action.
QUESTION 5
What is the purpose of radiation treatment prior to surgical resection of a tumor?
a) To debulk the tumor mass
b) To eliminate all cancer cells
c) To prevent metastasis
d) To reduce the risk of infection
CORRECT ANS: a
Expert Rationale
, Radiation therapy administered prior to surgical resection is called neoadjuvant
radiotherapy. Its primary purpose is to shrink (debulk) the tumor, making it easier to
resect surgically. This may also improve surgical outcomes and reduce the risk of local
recurrence. It is not intended to eliminate all cancer cells, prevent metastasis, or reduce
infection risk. Therefore, the purpose is to debulk the tumor mass.
QUESTION 6
An oncology specialist recommends placement of radioactive isotopes in capsules near
a patient's tumor. What is this form of radiation therapy called?
a) Brachytherapy
b) Teletherapy
c) External beam radiation
d) Systemic radiation therapy
CORRECT ANS: a
Expert Rationale
Brachytherapy is a form of radiation therapy in which radioactive isotopes are placed
directly into or near the tumor site. This allows for a high dose of radiation to be
delivered to the tumor while minimizing exposure to surrounding healthy tissues.
Teletherapy and external beam radiation refer to radiation delivered from an external
source. Systemic radiation therapy involves radioactive substances given orally or
intravenously. Therefore, the correct answer is brachytherapy.
QUESTION 7
Which chemotherapeutic agents are hormonal therapies referred to as selective
estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs)? (Select all that apply.)
a) Anastrozole
b) Letrozole
c) Tamoxifen
