WGU D447
Women's & Children's Health
Objective Assessment
Actual Questions with Verified Answers
Take and pass the OA :)
What You Will Get:
➢100+ OA Exam Questions w/ Answers
➢Expert Rationales included.
➢100+ OA PRACTICE QUESIONS
➢OA Study Guide & Clinical Prioritization
➢D447 Concept Map
, Preview Pages Below
Get the Complete PDF After Purchase
If you require further clarification
or in need of any study resources,
feel free to Message me.
,Table of Contents
D447 OA EXAM ...........................................................2
D447 OA PRACTICE TEST ...........................................88
D447 OA STUDY GUIDE .........................................129
D447 Concept Map ..................................................139
D447 OA EXAM
1. A 4-year-old is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome and is being treated in
the hospital. The child presents with periorbital edema, proteinuria, and
hypoalbuminemia. Which of the following are appropriate interventions for a
child with nephrotic syndrome? (Select all that apply)
A. Administer corticosteroids to reduce inflammation and proteinuria
B. Monitor urine output for signs of fluid retention
C. Measure the child's weight daily to assess for fluid status
D. Restrict sodium intake
Correct Answers: A, B, C, D
Expert Rationale: Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by massive proteinuria
(>40 mg/m²/hr), hypoalbuminemia (<2.5 g/dL), hyperlipidemia, and edema.
Minimal change disease (MCD) is the most common cause in children.
• A. Corticosteroids: Prednisone is first-line therapy for MCD; 90% of children
respond within 4 weeks.
• B. Monitor urine output: Oliguria indicates worsening renal function or fluid
overload.
, • C. Daily weights: The most reliable indicator of fluid status; same scale, same
time, same clothing.
• D. Sodium restriction: Reduces fluid retention and edema; typically <2
mEq/kg/day.
Complications to monitor: Infection (loss of immunoglobulins), thrombosis
(hypercoagulability from loss of antithrombin III), and acute kidney injury.
2. A 13-year-old male presents to the emergency department with sudden
onset of severe testicular pain and swelling in the right scrotum. He reports
that the pain began during a basketball game. He appears distressed, and upon
examination, the affected testicle is elevated, with a tender, hard mass present.
The cremasteric reflex is absent on the affected side.
Which of the following are the expected findings in a child with testicular torsion?
(Select all that apply)
A. Severe unilateral testicular pain that starts suddenly
B. Scrotal swelling and redness
C. Absence of the cremasteric reflex on affected side
D. Nausea and vomiting
E. Feelings of embarrassment or anxiety
Correct Answers: A, B, C, D
Table
Finding Rationale
A. Severe unilateral Testicular torsion causes sudden, severe pain due to
testicular pain twisting of the spermatic cord, cutting off blood
supply. This is the hallmark presentation.
B. Scrotal swelling Ischemia and inflammation cause scrotal edema and
and redness erythema as the testicle becomes engorged.
, Finding Rationale
C. Absence of The cremasteric reflex (testicle rising when inner
cremasteric reflex thigh is stroked) is absent in torsion—a key
diagnostic differentiator from epididymitis.
D. Nausea and Autonomic reflex from severe pain and testicular
vomiting ischemia triggers GI symptoms.
E. Feelings of While adolescents may feel embarrassed, this is not
embarrassment a clinical finding of testicular torsion.
Expert Rationale: Testicular torsion is a surgical emergency requiring
intervention within 6 hours to preserve testicular function. The spermatic cord
twists, compromising arterial blood flow and venous drainage. The "bell-clapper
deformity" (failure of normal fixation of the tunica vaginalis) predisposes to torsion.
Doppler ultrasound confirms absent blood flow. Surgical detorsion and
orchiopexy (or orchiectomy if necrotic) is definitive treatment.
3. A laboring mother is experiencing variable decelerations during continuous
fetal monitoring. Which interventions should the nurse implement for
variable decelerations? (Select all that apply)
A. Change the mother's position to improve cord flow
B. Administer oxygen to the mother to improve fetal oxygenation
C. Increase intravenous fluids to improve maternal circulation
D. Perform a vaginal examination to assess for cord prolapse
Correct Answers: A, B, C, D
Expert Rationale: Variable decelerations indicate umbilical cord compression
(VEAL CHOP: Variable = Cord compression). These decelerations are abrupt,
variable in shape, and may be benign or severe depending on frequency and
duration.
, • A. Position change: Lateral or knee-chest position relieves pressure on the
umbilical cord between the fetal head and uterine wall.
• B. Oxygen administration: 10L/min via non-rebreather mask increases
maternal PaO₂, improving fetal oxygenation.
• C. IV fluid bolus: Increases maternal intravascular volume and placental
perfusion.
• D. Vaginal exam: Rules out cord prolapse (emergency requiring immediate
elevation of presenting part and emergency delivery).
If decelerations persist after these measures, discontinue oxytocin and prepare for
rapid delivery if fetal compromise is evident.
4. A 4-year-old with hemophilia A has fallen and injured his arm. He is showing
signs of pain and swelling in the affected joint. What priority actions should
the nurse take for this child with hemophilia? (Select all that apply)
A. Administer clotting factor VIII replacement as prescribed
B. Apply pressure to control any active bleeding
C. Monitor for signs of internal bleeding such as abdominal pain or bruising
D. Apply cold packs to reduce swelling
Correct Answers: A, B, C, D
Expert Rationale: Hemophilia A is an X-linked recessive disorder caused by
deficiency of factor VIII, leading to impaired intrinsic clotting pathway.
• A. Factor VIII replacement: This is the definitive treatment for bleeding
episodes. Recombinant factor VIII or plasma-derived products restore clotting
ability.
• B. Pressure application: Direct pressure with sterile gauze promotes
hemostasis at superficial bleeding sites.
• C. Monitor for internal bleeding: Hemophiliacs are at risk for hemarthrosis
(joint bleeding), intracranial hemorrhage, and retroperitoneal bleeding.
Watch for abdominal distension, altered mental status, or expanding bruises.
, D447 OA PRACTICE TEST
1. A nurse is caring for a 4-year-old with tetralogy of Fallot who suddenly becomes
cyanotic during a crying episode. Which position should the nurse place the child in
immediately?
A. Supine with head elevated 30 degrees
B. Knee-chest position
C. Trendelenburg position
D. Left lateral recumbent position
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The knee-chest position increases systemic vascular resistance, which reduces
right-to-left shunting through the ventricular septal defect and improves pulmonary blood
flow. This is the priority intervention during a "tet spell" (paroxysmal hypercyanotic
episode). Supine with head elevated does not increase SVR. Trendelenburg would increase
venous return but not specifically address the shunt. Left lateral recumbent is used for air
embolism, not tet spells.
2. A pregnant client at 28 weeks has a 1-hour glucose challenge test result of 148
mg/dL. What is the nurse's next action? (Select all that apply.)
A. Diagnose gestational diabetes and start insulin
B. Schedule a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)
C. Reassure the client that this is a normal finding
D. Instruct the client to fast for at least 8 hours before the 3-hour test
E. Begin dietary modifications immediately
Correct Answers: B, D
Rationale: A 1-hour glucose challenge test value ≥140 mg/dL (some use ≥130 mg/dL)
requires follow-up with a diagnostic 3-hour OGTT. The client must fast for 8–12 hours prior
to the 3-hour test. Gestational diabetes cannot be diagnosed from the 1-hour screen alone.
Dietary modifications may be discussed but are not the priority next step until diagnosis is
confirmed.
,3. A nurse is assessing a newborn immediately after delivery. The infant's body is
pink, but the extremities are blue. The heart rate is 92 bpm, the infant grimaces
when stimulated, shows some flexion of extremities, and has slow, irregular
respirations. What is the APGAR score?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 9
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Appearance (pink body, blue extremities) = 1; Pulse (90 bpm) = 1; Grimace = 1;
Activity (some flexion) = 1; Respiration (slow, irregular) = 1. Total = 5. An APGAR of 5
indicates moderate depression requiring supportive care. A score of 7 would require at
least two 2s; a score of 3 would indicate severe depression.
4. A 6-month-old infant is diagnosed with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
bronchiolitis. Which nursing interventions are appropriate? (Select all that apply.)
A. Place the infant on contact precautions
B. Administer ribavirin via aerosol for all RSV cases
C. Provide humidified oxygen as needed
D. Encourage oral fluids in small, frequent amounts
E. Position the infant with head elevated 30 degrees
Correct Answers: A, C, D, E
Rationale: RSV is transmitted via respiratory secretions, so contact precautions are
required. Humidified oxygen supports respiratory status. Small, frequent oral fluids prevent
dehydration. Head elevation at 30 degrees facilitates breathing and reduces aspiration risk.
Ribavirin is reserved for severe, high-risk cases (e.g., immunocompromised), not all RSV
cases.
5. A nurse is reviewing the results of a maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP)
test at 16 weeks gestation. The level is elevated. Which actions should the nurse
anticipate? (Select all that apply.)
A. Schedule an ultrasound to confirm gestational age and assess fetal anatomy
B. Prepare the client for possible amniocentesis if ultrasound is abnormal
,C. Reassure the client that neural tube defects are a possible concern
D. Inform the client that elevated AFP always confirms a diagnosis
E. Schedule a biophysical profile immediately
Correct Answers: A, B, C
Rationale: Elevated MSAFP requires follow-up with ultrasound to rule out incorrect dating
and assess for neural tube defects (NTDs) such as spina bifida or anencephaly. If ultrasound
is abnormal, amniocentesis may be offered. Elevated AFP does NOT confirm a diagnosis—it
is a screening tool. A biophysical profile is not indicated at 16 weeks; it assesses fetal well-
being in the third trimester.
6. A client with severe preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate. The nurse notes
absent deep tendon reflexes, respiratory rate of 10/min, and urine output of 15
mL/hr. What is the priority nursing action?
A. Continue the infusion and notify the provider
B. Stop the magnesium sulfate infusion immediately
C. Increase the infusion rate to achieve therapeutic levels
D. Administer calcium chloride and prepare for intubation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Absent DTRs, RR <12/min, and decreased urine output are signs of magnesium
sulfate toxicity. The priority is to stop the infusion immediately to prevent respiratory
arrest. Calcium gluconate (not calcium chloride) is the antidote for magnesium toxicity.
Continuing or increasing the infusion would worsen toxicity. Intubation may be needed if
respiratory arrest occurs, but stopping the infusion is the first action.
7. A nurse is caring for a 2-year-old with croup. The parent asks what position would
be most comfortable for the child. What is the best response?
A. "Keep your child lying flat to improve airway patency."
B. "Your child will be most comfortable sitting upright or in your lap."
C. "Place your child in Trendelenburg position to reduce swelling."
D. "Have your child lie on the stomach with the head turned to the side."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Children with croup (laryngotracheobronchitis) are most comfortable in an
upright position or parent's lap, which reduces airway obstruction and anxiety. Lying flat
, D447 OA STUDY GUIDE
Fetal Assessment & Monitoring
Fetal Accelerations: Temporary, abrupt increases in the fetal heart rate
(FHR) above the established baseline, typically observed during labor or
prenatal monitoring. These are generally considered a reassuring sign,
indicating adequate fetal oxygenation and a responsive autonomic nervous
system.
Nonstress Test (NST): The most widely applied technique for antepartum
evaluation of the fetus.
Biophysical Profile (BPP): Uses real-time ultrasound to evaluate five fetal
variables: fetal heart rate, breathing movements, gross body movements,
muscle tone, and amniotic fluid volume.
Contraction Stress Test (CST): A stress test used to evaluate the ability of
the fetus to tolerate the stress of labor and delivery. Also called oxytocin
challenge test.
Early Decelerations: Gradual decrease in FHR that mirrors the pattern of
uterine contractions. Onset coincides with the beginning of a contraction, and
the nadir aligns with the peak. Considered normal and benign.
Late Decelerations: Begin after the onset of a contraction, with the nadir
occurring after the peak. Associated with uteroplacental insufficiency and may
indicate fetal hypoxia.
Variable Decelerations: Abrupt decreases in FHR with varying shape (V, U,
or W patterns). Typically associated with umbilical cord compression.
Neural Tube Defects (NTDs)
Alpha-Fetoprotein (AFP): Serum levels used as a screening tool for NTDs in
pregnancy. High levels suggest NTDs.
AFP Screening Timing: Can be done between 15-20 weeks, ideally 16-18
weeks gestation.
Women's & Children's Health
Objective Assessment
Actual Questions with Verified Answers
Take and pass the OA :)
What You Will Get:
➢100+ OA Exam Questions w/ Answers
➢Expert Rationales included.
➢100+ OA PRACTICE QUESIONS
➢OA Study Guide & Clinical Prioritization
➢D447 Concept Map
, Preview Pages Below
Get the Complete PDF After Purchase
If you require further clarification
or in need of any study resources,
feel free to Message me.
,Table of Contents
D447 OA EXAM ...........................................................2
D447 OA PRACTICE TEST ...........................................88
D447 OA STUDY GUIDE .........................................129
D447 Concept Map ..................................................139
D447 OA EXAM
1. A 4-year-old is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome and is being treated in
the hospital. The child presents with periorbital edema, proteinuria, and
hypoalbuminemia. Which of the following are appropriate interventions for a
child with nephrotic syndrome? (Select all that apply)
A. Administer corticosteroids to reduce inflammation and proteinuria
B. Monitor urine output for signs of fluid retention
C. Measure the child's weight daily to assess for fluid status
D. Restrict sodium intake
Correct Answers: A, B, C, D
Expert Rationale: Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by massive proteinuria
(>40 mg/m²/hr), hypoalbuminemia (<2.5 g/dL), hyperlipidemia, and edema.
Minimal change disease (MCD) is the most common cause in children.
• A. Corticosteroids: Prednisone is first-line therapy for MCD; 90% of children
respond within 4 weeks.
• B. Monitor urine output: Oliguria indicates worsening renal function or fluid
overload.
, • C. Daily weights: The most reliable indicator of fluid status; same scale, same
time, same clothing.
• D. Sodium restriction: Reduces fluid retention and edema; typically <2
mEq/kg/day.
Complications to monitor: Infection (loss of immunoglobulins), thrombosis
(hypercoagulability from loss of antithrombin III), and acute kidney injury.
2. A 13-year-old male presents to the emergency department with sudden
onset of severe testicular pain and swelling in the right scrotum. He reports
that the pain began during a basketball game. He appears distressed, and upon
examination, the affected testicle is elevated, with a tender, hard mass present.
The cremasteric reflex is absent on the affected side.
Which of the following are the expected findings in a child with testicular torsion?
(Select all that apply)
A. Severe unilateral testicular pain that starts suddenly
B. Scrotal swelling and redness
C. Absence of the cremasteric reflex on affected side
D. Nausea and vomiting
E. Feelings of embarrassment or anxiety
Correct Answers: A, B, C, D
Table
Finding Rationale
A. Severe unilateral Testicular torsion causes sudden, severe pain due to
testicular pain twisting of the spermatic cord, cutting off blood
supply. This is the hallmark presentation.
B. Scrotal swelling Ischemia and inflammation cause scrotal edema and
and redness erythema as the testicle becomes engorged.
, Finding Rationale
C. Absence of The cremasteric reflex (testicle rising when inner
cremasteric reflex thigh is stroked) is absent in torsion—a key
diagnostic differentiator from epididymitis.
D. Nausea and Autonomic reflex from severe pain and testicular
vomiting ischemia triggers GI symptoms.
E. Feelings of While adolescents may feel embarrassed, this is not
embarrassment a clinical finding of testicular torsion.
Expert Rationale: Testicular torsion is a surgical emergency requiring
intervention within 6 hours to preserve testicular function. The spermatic cord
twists, compromising arterial blood flow and venous drainage. The "bell-clapper
deformity" (failure of normal fixation of the tunica vaginalis) predisposes to torsion.
Doppler ultrasound confirms absent blood flow. Surgical detorsion and
orchiopexy (or orchiectomy if necrotic) is definitive treatment.
3. A laboring mother is experiencing variable decelerations during continuous
fetal monitoring. Which interventions should the nurse implement for
variable decelerations? (Select all that apply)
A. Change the mother's position to improve cord flow
B. Administer oxygen to the mother to improve fetal oxygenation
C. Increase intravenous fluids to improve maternal circulation
D. Perform a vaginal examination to assess for cord prolapse
Correct Answers: A, B, C, D
Expert Rationale: Variable decelerations indicate umbilical cord compression
(VEAL CHOP: Variable = Cord compression). These decelerations are abrupt,
variable in shape, and may be benign or severe depending on frequency and
duration.
, • A. Position change: Lateral or knee-chest position relieves pressure on the
umbilical cord between the fetal head and uterine wall.
• B. Oxygen administration: 10L/min via non-rebreather mask increases
maternal PaO₂, improving fetal oxygenation.
• C. IV fluid bolus: Increases maternal intravascular volume and placental
perfusion.
• D. Vaginal exam: Rules out cord prolapse (emergency requiring immediate
elevation of presenting part and emergency delivery).
If decelerations persist after these measures, discontinue oxytocin and prepare for
rapid delivery if fetal compromise is evident.
4. A 4-year-old with hemophilia A has fallen and injured his arm. He is showing
signs of pain and swelling in the affected joint. What priority actions should
the nurse take for this child with hemophilia? (Select all that apply)
A. Administer clotting factor VIII replacement as prescribed
B. Apply pressure to control any active bleeding
C. Monitor for signs of internal bleeding such as abdominal pain or bruising
D. Apply cold packs to reduce swelling
Correct Answers: A, B, C, D
Expert Rationale: Hemophilia A is an X-linked recessive disorder caused by
deficiency of factor VIII, leading to impaired intrinsic clotting pathway.
• A. Factor VIII replacement: This is the definitive treatment for bleeding
episodes. Recombinant factor VIII or plasma-derived products restore clotting
ability.
• B. Pressure application: Direct pressure with sterile gauze promotes
hemostasis at superficial bleeding sites.
• C. Monitor for internal bleeding: Hemophiliacs are at risk for hemarthrosis
(joint bleeding), intracranial hemorrhage, and retroperitoneal bleeding.
Watch for abdominal distension, altered mental status, or expanding bruises.
, D447 OA PRACTICE TEST
1. A nurse is caring for a 4-year-old with tetralogy of Fallot who suddenly becomes
cyanotic during a crying episode. Which position should the nurse place the child in
immediately?
A. Supine with head elevated 30 degrees
B. Knee-chest position
C. Trendelenburg position
D. Left lateral recumbent position
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The knee-chest position increases systemic vascular resistance, which reduces
right-to-left shunting through the ventricular septal defect and improves pulmonary blood
flow. This is the priority intervention during a "tet spell" (paroxysmal hypercyanotic
episode). Supine with head elevated does not increase SVR. Trendelenburg would increase
venous return but not specifically address the shunt. Left lateral recumbent is used for air
embolism, not tet spells.
2. A pregnant client at 28 weeks has a 1-hour glucose challenge test result of 148
mg/dL. What is the nurse's next action? (Select all that apply.)
A. Diagnose gestational diabetes and start insulin
B. Schedule a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)
C. Reassure the client that this is a normal finding
D. Instruct the client to fast for at least 8 hours before the 3-hour test
E. Begin dietary modifications immediately
Correct Answers: B, D
Rationale: A 1-hour glucose challenge test value ≥140 mg/dL (some use ≥130 mg/dL)
requires follow-up with a diagnostic 3-hour OGTT. The client must fast for 8–12 hours prior
to the 3-hour test. Gestational diabetes cannot be diagnosed from the 1-hour screen alone.
Dietary modifications may be discussed but are not the priority next step until diagnosis is
confirmed.
,3. A nurse is assessing a newborn immediately after delivery. The infant's body is
pink, but the extremities are blue. The heart rate is 92 bpm, the infant grimaces
when stimulated, shows some flexion of extremities, and has slow, irregular
respirations. What is the APGAR score?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 9
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Appearance (pink body, blue extremities) = 1; Pulse (90 bpm) = 1; Grimace = 1;
Activity (some flexion) = 1; Respiration (slow, irregular) = 1. Total = 5. An APGAR of 5
indicates moderate depression requiring supportive care. A score of 7 would require at
least two 2s; a score of 3 would indicate severe depression.
4. A 6-month-old infant is diagnosed with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
bronchiolitis. Which nursing interventions are appropriate? (Select all that apply.)
A. Place the infant on contact precautions
B. Administer ribavirin via aerosol for all RSV cases
C. Provide humidified oxygen as needed
D. Encourage oral fluids in small, frequent amounts
E. Position the infant with head elevated 30 degrees
Correct Answers: A, C, D, E
Rationale: RSV is transmitted via respiratory secretions, so contact precautions are
required. Humidified oxygen supports respiratory status. Small, frequent oral fluids prevent
dehydration. Head elevation at 30 degrees facilitates breathing and reduces aspiration risk.
Ribavirin is reserved for severe, high-risk cases (e.g., immunocompromised), not all RSV
cases.
5. A nurse is reviewing the results of a maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP)
test at 16 weeks gestation. The level is elevated. Which actions should the nurse
anticipate? (Select all that apply.)
A. Schedule an ultrasound to confirm gestational age and assess fetal anatomy
B. Prepare the client for possible amniocentesis if ultrasound is abnormal
,C. Reassure the client that neural tube defects are a possible concern
D. Inform the client that elevated AFP always confirms a diagnosis
E. Schedule a biophysical profile immediately
Correct Answers: A, B, C
Rationale: Elevated MSAFP requires follow-up with ultrasound to rule out incorrect dating
and assess for neural tube defects (NTDs) such as spina bifida or anencephaly. If ultrasound
is abnormal, amniocentesis may be offered. Elevated AFP does NOT confirm a diagnosis—it
is a screening tool. A biophysical profile is not indicated at 16 weeks; it assesses fetal well-
being in the third trimester.
6. A client with severe preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate. The nurse notes
absent deep tendon reflexes, respiratory rate of 10/min, and urine output of 15
mL/hr. What is the priority nursing action?
A. Continue the infusion and notify the provider
B. Stop the magnesium sulfate infusion immediately
C. Increase the infusion rate to achieve therapeutic levels
D. Administer calcium chloride and prepare for intubation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Absent DTRs, RR <12/min, and decreased urine output are signs of magnesium
sulfate toxicity. The priority is to stop the infusion immediately to prevent respiratory
arrest. Calcium gluconate (not calcium chloride) is the antidote for magnesium toxicity.
Continuing or increasing the infusion would worsen toxicity. Intubation may be needed if
respiratory arrest occurs, but stopping the infusion is the first action.
7. A nurse is caring for a 2-year-old with croup. The parent asks what position would
be most comfortable for the child. What is the best response?
A. "Keep your child lying flat to improve airway patency."
B. "Your child will be most comfortable sitting upright or in your lap."
C. "Place your child in Trendelenburg position to reduce swelling."
D. "Have your child lie on the stomach with the head turned to the side."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Children with croup (laryngotracheobronchitis) are most comfortable in an
upright position or parent's lap, which reduces airway obstruction and anxiety. Lying flat
, D447 OA STUDY GUIDE
Fetal Assessment & Monitoring
Fetal Accelerations: Temporary, abrupt increases in the fetal heart rate
(FHR) above the established baseline, typically observed during labor or
prenatal monitoring. These are generally considered a reassuring sign,
indicating adequate fetal oxygenation and a responsive autonomic nervous
system.
Nonstress Test (NST): The most widely applied technique for antepartum
evaluation of the fetus.
Biophysical Profile (BPP): Uses real-time ultrasound to evaluate five fetal
variables: fetal heart rate, breathing movements, gross body movements,
muscle tone, and amniotic fluid volume.
Contraction Stress Test (CST): A stress test used to evaluate the ability of
the fetus to tolerate the stress of labor and delivery. Also called oxytocin
challenge test.
Early Decelerations: Gradual decrease in FHR that mirrors the pattern of
uterine contractions. Onset coincides with the beginning of a contraction, and
the nadir aligns with the peak. Considered normal and benign.
Late Decelerations: Begin after the onset of a contraction, with the nadir
occurring after the peak. Associated with uteroplacental insufficiency and may
indicate fetal hypoxia.
Variable Decelerations: Abrupt decreases in FHR with varying shape (V, U,
or W patterns). Typically associated with umbilical cord compression.
Neural Tube Defects (NTDs)
Alpha-Fetoprotein (AFP): Serum levels used as a screening tool for NTDs in
pregnancy. High levels suggest NTDs.
AFP Screening Timing: Can be done between 15-20 weeks, ideally 16-18
weeks gestation.
