BSN Nursing Fundamentals, Pharmacology, and | Assessment Quiz (Weeks 33-64) Questions With Answers and detailed Rationales

BSN Nursing Fundamentals, Pharmacology, and | Assessment
Quiz (Weeks 33-64) Questions With Answers and detailed
Rationales

Question 1.
A patient is prescribed Lisinopril for hypertension. Which side effect should the nurse
instruct the patient to report immediately?
A. Occasional mild headache
B. Increased appetite
C. Yellowing of the sclera
D. Persistent dry cough

Correct Answer: D. Persistent dry cough

Explanation: ACE inhibitors like Lisinopril commonly cause a persistent dry cough due to
the accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs.


Question 2.
When assessing a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which clinical
manifestation is most characteristic?
A. Bilateral pedal edema
B. Pale, cool skin on the affected extremity
C. Unilateral leg warmth and swelling
D. Diminished pedal pulses

Correct Answer: C. Unilateral leg warmth and swelling

Explanation: DVT typically presents unilaterally with redness, warmth, edema, and
tenderness in the affected limb.


Question 3.
The nurse is preparing to administer Digoxin. Which vital sign must be checked prior to
administration?
A. Apical Pulse
B. Respiratory Rate
C. Blood Pressure
D. Oxygen Saturation

Correct Answer: A. Apical Pulse

Explanation: The apical pulse must be assessed for one full minute. Digoxin should be
withheld if the heart rate is less than 60 bpm in adults.

,Question 4.
Which electrolyte imbalance is a patient most at risk for when taking a loop diuretic like
Furosemide?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hyponatremia

Correct Answer: A. Hypokalemia

Explanation: Loop diuretics cause the excretion of potassium along with water and
sodium, leading to a risk of hypokalemia.


Question 5.
A nurse is performing a physical assessment and notes a ‘whooshing’ sound over the
carotid artery. This is documented as:
A. A murmur
B. A thrill
C. A bruit
D. A heave

Correct Answer: C. A bruit

Explanation: A bruit is a blowing or swishing sound caused by turbulent blood flow in an
artery.


Question 6.
In the TNM staging system for cancer, what does the ‘N’ represent?
A. Number of tumors
B. Node involvement
C. Neoplasm type
D. Necrosis level

Correct Answer: B. Node involvement

Explanation: TNM stands for Tumor (size/extent), Node (lymph node involvement), and
Metastasis (spread).


Question 7.
Which of the following is a classic sign of hypoglycemia?
A. Diaphoresis and shakiness
B. Fruit-scented breath
C. Extreme thirst
D. Kussmaul respirations

Correct Answer: A. Diaphoresis and shakiness

,Explanation: Hypoglycemia triggers the sympathetic nervous system, causing sweating
(diaphoresis), tremors, and tachycardia.


Question 8.
A nurse is caring for a patient with a Stage 3 pressure injury. How is this stage
characterized?
A. Non-blanchable erythema
B. Full-thickness skin loss with visible subcutaneous fat
C. Partial-thickness skin loss
D. Full-thickness loss with exposed bone or muscle

Correct Answer: B. Full-thickness skin loss with visible subcutaneous fat

Explanation: Stage 3 involves full-thickness skin loss where adipose tissue is visible, but
bone, tendon, and muscle are not yet exposed.


Question 9.
Which medication is considered the ‘gold standard’ for immediate relief of an acute
asthma attack?
A. Salmeterol
B. Fluticasone
C. Albuterol
D. Montelukast

Correct Answer: C. Albuterol

Explanation: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) used as a rescue medication
for rapid bronchodilation.


Question 10.
When assessing the abdomen, what is the correct sequence of techniques?
A. Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
B. Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
C. Auscultation, Inspection, Palpation, Percussion
D. Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation, Inspection

Correct Answer: B. Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation

Explanation: Auscultation is performed second to avoid altering bowel sounds through
percussion or palpation.

, Question 11.
What is the primary mechanism of action of Warfarin?
A. Prevents platelet aggregation
B. Inhibits Vitamin K-dependent clotting factors
C. Dissolves existing blood clots
D. Inhibits thrombin directly

Correct Answer: B. Inhibits Vitamin K-dependent clotting factors

Explanation: Warfarin interferes with the hepatic synthesis of Vitamin K-dependent
clotting factors (II, VII, IX, and X).


Question 12.
Which lab value is most important to monitor for a patient receiving Heparin via
continuous IV infusion?
A. Prothrombin Time (PT)
B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)
D. Platelet Count only

Correct Answer: C. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)

Explanation: aPTT is the standard test for monitoring the therapeutic effect of
unfractionated Heparin.


Question 13.
A patient is experiencing Respiratory Alkalosis. Which of the following is a common cause?
A. Hypoventilation
B. Excessive vomiting
C. Hyperventilation
D. Diabetic Ketoacidosis

Correct Answer: C. Hyperventilation

Explanation: Hyperventilation leads to excessive blowing off of CO2, which increases
blood pH.


Question 14.
What is the therapeutic range for a patient on Digoxin?
A. 10 to 20 mcg/mL
B. 5 to 10 ng/mL
C. 0.5 to 2.0 ng/mL
D. 0.1 to 0.5 ng/mL

Correct Answer: C. 0.5 to 2.0 ng/mL