HESI RN SKIN INTEGRITY ACCURATE
COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE EXAM WITH ALL
POSSIBLE APPROVED WELL ELABORATED
PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT
VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES
PLUS EXPERT ANSWER KEY (100% CORRECT
VERIFIED SOLUTIONS) 2026-2027 CURRENTLY
UPDATED VERSION Q&A GUARANTEED PASS A+
INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
Good Luck
1. A patient has a stage 3 pressure injury on the sacrum. Which
nursing intervention is a priority for managing this wound?
A. Massage the surrounding skin to promote circulation
B. Apply a transparent film dressing to keep the wound moist
C. Clean the wound with a wound cleanser and pack with moist
gauze
D. Use a heat lamp to dry the wound bed
C. Clean the wound with a wound cleanser and pack with moist
gauze
Rationale: Stage 3 pressure injuries extend into the subcutaneous
tissue and often require debridement and moist wound healing.
Packing with moist gauze helps maintain a moist environment,
facilitates granulation, and prevents dead space. Massage can
damage fragile capillaries, transparent films are for stage 1 or
, superficial wounds, and heat lamps can dry and further damage
tissue.
2. A nurse is applying a negative-pressure wound therapy (NPWT)
unit to a patient with a chronic abdominal wound. What is the
primary purpose of this therapy?
A. To debride the wound mechanically
B. To decrease bacterial growth in the wound
C. To promote granulation tissue formation and wound
contraction
D. To provide a barrier against external contaminants
C. To promote granulation tissue formation and wound
contraction
Rationale: Negative-pressure wound therapy applies controlled
suction to a wound, which removes excess fluid, reduces edema,
increases blood flow, and promotes the formation of granulation
tissue and wound contraction. While it can help reduce bacteria,
its primary action is on tissue growth and closure.
3. The nurse is teaching a patient about skin care to prevent
pressure injuries. Which statement by the patient indicates a
need for further teaching?
A. "I should change my position every hour when I am in bed."
B. "I will use a rubber ring to relieve pressure on my heels."
C. "I need to keep my skin clean and dry."
D. "I will use a lift sheet to move up in bed."
B. "I will use a rubber ring to relieve pressure on my heels."
Rationale: Donut-type or rubber ring devices are contraindicated
because they can cause venous pooling, edema, and increased
pressure in the surrounding tissues, potentially creating a new
pressure injury. Repositioning, skin hygiene, and using lift sheets
to reduce shearing are all appropriate interventions.
,4. An older adult patient has dry, flaky skin and reports severe
itching. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
A. Bathe the patient with hot water to open pores
B. Apply a lanolin-based lotion immediately after a bath
C. Encourage the patient to scratch with a soft cloth
D. Use an alcohol-based skin preparation to dry any weeping
areas
B. Apply a lanolin-based lotion immediately after a bath
Rationale: Xerosis (dry skin) is common in older adults and
contributes to pruritus. Applying an emollient like lanolin
immediately after a bath, while the skin is still damp, helps trap
moisture. Hot water, alcohol, and scratching all exacerbate
dryness and skin breakdown.
5. A patient has a deep partial-thickness burn on the anterior chest.
Which assessment finding is characteristic of this type of burn?
A. Painless, waxy, and dry appearance
B. Moist, red, and blistered appearance with severe pain
C. Black, charred, and leathery appearance
D. Blanching with pressure and a dry, pink appearance
B. Moist, red, and blistered appearance with severe pain
Rationale: Deep partial-thickness burns (formerly known as deep
second-degree) affect the epidermis and dermis, appearing moist,
red, and often with blisters. They are extremely painful because
nerve endings are exposed but not destroyed. A painless, waxy
appearance is characteristic of full-thickness burns, and a dry, pink
appearance that blanches is typical of superficial burns.
6. In the acute phase of burn care, which assessment is the highest
priority for the nurse?
A. Pain management
B. Wound infection
, C. Airway patency and respiratory status
D. Nutritional intake
C. Airway patency and respiratory status
Rationale: The highest priority in the acute phase of burn care is
establishing and maintaining a patent airway and adequate
breathing. Inhalation injury can cause rapid airway edema and
respiratory failure, which is life-threatening. While pain, infection,
and nutrition are important, they are secondary to airway,
breathing, and circulation (ABCs).
7. A nurse is calculating the fluid resuscitation for a patient with a
40% total body surface area (TBSA) burn. Using the Parkland
formula, the nurse knows that the total fluid volume is to be
administered over which time frame?
A. 4 hours
B. 8 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 48 hours
C. 24 hours
Rationale: The Parkland formula (4 mL × kg × %TBSA) calculates
the total fluid volume needed for the first 24 hours post-burn. Half
of this volume is given in the first 8 hours from the time of injury,
and the remaining half is given over the next 16 hours.
8. Which laboratory value is most critical to monitor in a patient
with a large burn injury during the emergent phase?
A. Serum sodium
B. Serum potassium
C. Serum calcium
D. Serum chloride
B. Serum potassium
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (elevated potassium) is a significant
COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE EXAM WITH ALL
POSSIBLE APPROVED WELL ELABORATED
PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT
VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES
PLUS EXPERT ANSWER KEY (100% CORRECT
VERIFIED SOLUTIONS) 2026-2027 CURRENTLY
UPDATED VERSION Q&A GUARANTEED PASS A+
INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
Good Luck
1. A patient has a stage 3 pressure injury on the sacrum. Which
nursing intervention is a priority for managing this wound?
A. Massage the surrounding skin to promote circulation
B. Apply a transparent film dressing to keep the wound moist
C. Clean the wound with a wound cleanser and pack with moist
gauze
D. Use a heat lamp to dry the wound bed
C. Clean the wound with a wound cleanser and pack with moist
gauze
Rationale: Stage 3 pressure injuries extend into the subcutaneous
tissue and often require debridement and moist wound healing.
Packing with moist gauze helps maintain a moist environment,
facilitates granulation, and prevents dead space. Massage can
damage fragile capillaries, transparent films are for stage 1 or
, superficial wounds, and heat lamps can dry and further damage
tissue.
2. A nurse is applying a negative-pressure wound therapy (NPWT)
unit to a patient with a chronic abdominal wound. What is the
primary purpose of this therapy?
A. To debride the wound mechanically
B. To decrease bacterial growth in the wound
C. To promote granulation tissue formation and wound
contraction
D. To provide a barrier against external contaminants
C. To promote granulation tissue formation and wound
contraction
Rationale: Negative-pressure wound therapy applies controlled
suction to a wound, which removes excess fluid, reduces edema,
increases blood flow, and promotes the formation of granulation
tissue and wound contraction. While it can help reduce bacteria,
its primary action is on tissue growth and closure.
3. The nurse is teaching a patient about skin care to prevent
pressure injuries. Which statement by the patient indicates a
need for further teaching?
A. "I should change my position every hour when I am in bed."
B. "I will use a rubber ring to relieve pressure on my heels."
C. "I need to keep my skin clean and dry."
D. "I will use a lift sheet to move up in bed."
B. "I will use a rubber ring to relieve pressure on my heels."
Rationale: Donut-type or rubber ring devices are contraindicated
because they can cause venous pooling, edema, and increased
pressure in the surrounding tissues, potentially creating a new
pressure injury. Repositioning, skin hygiene, and using lift sheets
to reduce shearing are all appropriate interventions.
,4. An older adult patient has dry, flaky skin and reports severe
itching. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
A. Bathe the patient with hot water to open pores
B. Apply a lanolin-based lotion immediately after a bath
C. Encourage the patient to scratch with a soft cloth
D. Use an alcohol-based skin preparation to dry any weeping
areas
B. Apply a lanolin-based lotion immediately after a bath
Rationale: Xerosis (dry skin) is common in older adults and
contributes to pruritus. Applying an emollient like lanolin
immediately after a bath, while the skin is still damp, helps trap
moisture. Hot water, alcohol, and scratching all exacerbate
dryness and skin breakdown.
5. A patient has a deep partial-thickness burn on the anterior chest.
Which assessment finding is characteristic of this type of burn?
A. Painless, waxy, and dry appearance
B. Moist, red, and blistered appearance with severe pain
C. Black, charred, and leathery appearance
D. Blanching with pressure and a dry, pink appearance
B. Moist, red, and blistered appearance with severe pain
Rationale: Deep partial-thickness burns (formerly known as deep
second-degree) affect the epidermis and dermis, appearing moist,
red, and often with blisters. They are extremely painful because
nerve endings are exposed but not destroyed. A painless, waxy
appearance is characteristic of full-thickness burns, and a dry, pink
appearance that blanches is typical of superficial burns.
6. In the acute phase of burn care, which assessment is the highest
priority for the nurse?
A. Pain management
B. Wound infection
, C. Airway patency and respiratory status
D. Nutritional intake
C. Airway patency and respiratory status
Rationale: The highest priority in the acute phase of burn care is
establishing and maintaining a patent airway and adequate
breathing. Inhalation injury can cause rapid airway edema and
respiratory failure, which is life-threatening. While pain, infection,
and nutrition are important, they are secondary to airway,
breathing, and circulation (ABCs).
7. A nurse is calculating the fluid resuscitation for a patient with a
40% total body surface area (TBSA) burn. Using the Parkland
formula, the nurse knows that the total fluid volume is to be
administered over which time frame?
A. 4 hours
B. 8 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 48 hours
C. 24 hours
Rationale: The Parkland formula (4 mL × kg × %TBSA) calculates
the total fluid volume needed for the first 24 hours post-burn. Half
of this volume is given in the first 8 hours from the time of injury,
and the remaining half is given over the next 16 hours.
8. Which laboratory value is most critical to monitor in a patient
with a large burn injury during the emergent phase?
A. Serum sodium
B. Serum potassium
C. Serum calcium
D. Serum chloride
B. Serum potassium
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (elevated potassium) is a significant
