HESI CAT EXAM - CAT HESI EXIT NEWEST 2026 ACTUAL
EXAM| COMPLETE 300 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS/ ALREADY GRADED A+
(MOST RECENT!!)
Question 1
A client with chronic renal failure is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which
assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider
immediately before the procedure?
A) Serum potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L
B) Weight gain of 1 kg since last dialysis
C) Blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg
D) Fistula site with a palpable thrill and audible bruit
Correct Answer: A
Explanation : A serum potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L is above the normal range
(3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and indicates hyperkalemia, which can lead to life-threatening
cardiac arrhythmias. This finding requires immediate intervention, such as
emergency dialysis, and must be reported to the healthcare provider. Weight gain,
elevated blood pressure, and a functioning fistula are expected findings in a client
with chronic renal failure and do not require immediate notification unless they
are extreme or deteriorating.
Question 2
A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube connected to a water-seal drainage
system. Which observation indicates that the system is functioning correctly?
A) Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber
B) Tidaling in the water-seal chamber with respiration
C) Sudden cessation of bubbling in the suction control chamber
D) Drainage of 200 mL of bright red blood in one hour
Correct Answer: B
Explanation : Tidaling, or fluctuation of the water level in the water-seal chamber
with respiration, is a normal and expected finding indicating that the chest tube is
,patent and the system is intact. Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber
suggests an air leak, while sudden cessation of bubbling in the suction control
chamber indicates a blockage or malfunction. Drainage of 200 mL of bright red
blood in one hour is excessive and may indicate hemorrhage, requiring immediate
intervention.
Question 3
A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed metformin. Which instruction
should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
A) Take the medication with meals to reduce gastrointestinal upset
B) Monitor for signs of hypoglycemia, especially after exercise
C) Expect weight gain as a common side effect
D) Discontinue the medication if a metallic taste occurs
Correct Answer: A
Explanation : Metformin commonly causes gastrointestinal side effects such as
nausea and diarrhea, which can be minimized by taking the medication with
meals. Metformin does not typically cause hypoglycemia when used alone, and
weight gain is not a common side effect; in fact, it may promote weight loss. A
metallic taste is not a typical side effect, and the medication should not be
discontinued without consulting the healthcare provider.
Question 4
A postpartum client who is Rh-negative and has an Rh-positive infant is prescribed
Rho(D) immune globulin. The nurse explains that the purpose of this medication is
to:
A) Prevent fetal anemia in the current pregnancy
B) Prevent maternal sensitization to Rh-positive blood
C) Treat neonatal jaundice caused by Rh incompatibility
D) Increase maternal antibody production against Rh factor
Correct Answer: B
Explanation : Rho(D) immune globulin is administered to Rh-negative mothers
after delivery of an Rh-positive infant to prevent maternal sensitization.
Sensitization occurs when the mother's immune system produces antibodies
against Rh-positive blood cells, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the
,newborn in subsequent pregnancies. It does not prevent fetal anemia in the
current pregnancy, treat neonatal jaundice, or increase antibody production.
Question 5
A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin and furosemide. Which laboratory
value should the nurse monitor closely to prevent digoxin toxicity?
A) Serum sodium
B) Serum potassium
C) Serum calcium
D) Serum magnesium
Correct Answer: B
Explanation : Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia (low
serum potassium). Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, even when
digoxin levels are within the therapeutic range. Therefore, the nurse should
monitor serum potassium closely and report low levels to the healthcare provider.
Sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not as directly related to digoxin
toxicity.
Question 6
A client is admitted with acute pancreatitis. Which laboratory finding is most
consistent with this diagnosis?
A) Elevated serum amylase and lipase
B) Decreased serum calcium and magnesium
C) Elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatinine
D) Decreased serum albumin and total protein
Correct Answer: A
Explanation : In acute pancreatitis, serum amylase and lipase are significantly
elevated due to the release of these enzymes from damaged pancreatic cells.
Lipase is more specific to the pancreas and remains elevated longer than amylase.
Decreased calcium may occur in severe pancreatitis due to saponification, but
elevated amylase and lipase are the hallmark diagnostic findings. BUN and
creatinine elevations suggest renal impairment, and decreased albumin and total
protein are nonspecific findings.
, Question 7
A nurse is assessing a client with severe preeclampsia. Which finding indicates the
onset of eclampsia?
A) Blood pressure of 160/110 mmHg
B) Proteinuria of 3+ on a urine dipstick
C) Generalized tonic-clonic seizure activity
D) Epigastric pain and nausea
Correct Answer: C
Explanation : Eclampsia is defined as the onset of seizures in a client with
preeclampsia. Generalized tonic-clonic seizures are the hallmark of eclampsia and
require immediate intervention, including the administration of magnesium
sulfate. Hypertension, proteinuria, and epigastric pain are findings associated with
preeclampsia but do not indicate the progression to eclampsia without seizure
activity.
Question 8
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen
therapy at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which assessment finding indicates that the
oxygen delivery is adequate?
A) Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute
B) Pulse oximetry reading of 92%
C) Patient reports feeling short of breath
D) Arterial blood gas showing PaCO2 of 55 mmHg
Correct Answer: B
Explanation : For a client with COPD, the target oxygen saturation is typically 88-
92% to maintain adequate tissue oxygenation without suppressing the hypoxic
drive. A pulse oximetry reading of 92% is within the target range and indicates
adequate oxygen delivery. A respiratory rate of 28 is elevated, shortness of breath
indicates inadequate oxygenation or ventilation, and a PaCO2 of 55 mmHg
indicates hypercapnia, which may be exacerbated by excessive oxygen delivery.
Question 9
A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client. Which action
should the nurse take first?
EXAM| COMPLETE 300 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS/ ALREADY GRADED A+
(MOST RECENT!!)
Question 1
A client with chronic renal failure is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which
assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider
immediately before the procedure?
A) Serum potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L
B) Weight gain of 1 kg since last dialysis
C) Blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg
D) Fistula site with a palpable thrill and audible bruit
Correct Answer: A
Explanation : A serum potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L is above the normal range
(3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and indicates hyperkalemia, which can lead to life-threatening
cardiac arrhythmias. This finding requires immediate intervention, such as
emergency dialysis, and must be reported to the healthcare provider. Weight gain,
elevated blood pressure, and a functioning fistula are expected findings in a client
with chronic renal failure and do not require immediate notification unless they
are extreme or deteriorating.
Question 2
A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube connected to a water-seal drainage
system. Which observation indicates that the system is functioning correctly?
A) Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber
B) Tidaling in the water-seal chamber with respiration
C) Sudden cessation of bubbling in the suction control chamber
D) Drainage of 200 mL of bright red blood in one hour
Correct Answer: B
Explanation : Tidaling, or fluctuation of the water level in the water-seal chamber
with respiration, is a normal and expected finding indicating that the chest tube is
,patent and the system is intact. Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber
suggests an air leak, while sudden cessation of bubbling in the suction control
chamber indicates a blockage or malfunction. Drainage of 200 mL of bright red
blood in one hour is excessive and may indicate hemorrhage, requiring immediate
intervention.
Question 3
A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed metformin. Which instruction
should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
A) Take the medication with meals to reduce gastrointestinal upset
B) Monitor for signs of hypoglycemia, especially after exercise
C) Expect weight gain as a common side effect
D) Discontinue the medication if a metallic taste occurs
Correct Answer: A
Explanation : Metformin commonly causes gastrointestinal side effects such as
nausea and diarrhea, which can be minimized by taking the medication with
meals. Metformin does not typically cause hypoglycemia when used alone, and
weight gain is not a common side effect; in fact, it may promote weight loss. A
metallic taste is not a typical side effect, and the medication should not be
discontinued without consulting the healthcare provider.
Question 4
A postpartum client who is Rh-negative and has an Rh-positive infant is prescribed
Rho(D) immune globulin. The nurse explains that the purpose of this medication is
to:
A) Prevent fetal anemia in the current pregnancy
B) Prevent maternal sensitization to Rh-positive blood
C) Treat neonatal jaundice caused by Rh incompatibility
D) Increase maternal antibody production against Rh factor
Correct Answer: B
Explanation : Rho(D) immune globulin is administered to Rh-negative mothers
after delivery of an Rh-positive infant to prevent maternal sensitization.
Sensitization occurs when the mother's immune system produces antibodies
against Rh-positive blood cells, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the
,newborn in subsequent pregnancies. It does not prevent fetal anemia in the
current pregnancy, treat neonatal jaundice, or increase antibody production.
Question 5
A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin and furosemide. Which laboratory
value should the nurse monitor closely to prevent digoxin toxicity?
A) Serum sodium
B) Serum potassium
C) Serum calcium
D) Serum magnesium
Correct Answer: B
Explanation : Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia (low
serum potassium). Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, even when
digoxin levels are within the therapeutic range. Therefore, the nurse should
monitor serum potassium closely and report low levels to the healthcare provider.
Sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not as directly related to digoxin
toxicity.
Question 6
A client is admitted with acute pancreatitis. Which laboratory finding is most
consistent with this diagnosis?
A) Elevated serum amylase and lipase
B) Decreased serum calcium and magnesium
C) Elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatinine
D) Decreased serum albumin and total protein
Correct Answer: A
Explanation : In acute pancreatitis, serum amylase and lipase are significantly
elevated due to the release of these enzymes from damaged pancreatic cells.
Lipase is more specific to the pancreas and remains elevated longer than amylase.
Decreased calcium may occur in severe pancreatitis due to saponification, but
elevated amylase and lipase are the hallmark diagnostic findings. BUN and
creatinine elevations suggest renal impairment, and decreased albumin and total
protein are nonspecific findings.
, Question 7
A nurse is assessing a client with severe preeclampsia. Which finding indicates the
onset of eclampsia?
A) Blood pressure of 160/110 mmHg
B) Proteinuria of 3+ on a urine dipstick
C) Generalized tonic-clonic seizure activity
D) Epigastric pain and nausea
Correct Answer: C
Explanation : Eclampsia is defined as the onset of seizures in a client with
preeclampsia. Generalized tonic-clonic seizures are the hallmark of eclampsia and
require immediate intervention, including the administration of magnesium
sulfate. Hypertension, proteinuria, and epigastric pain are findings associated with
preeclampsia but do not indicate the progression to eclampsia without seizure
activity.
Question 8
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen
therapy at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which assessment finding indicates that the
oxygen delivery is adequate?
A) Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute
B) Pulse oximetry reading of 92%
C) Patient reports feeling short of breath
D) Arterial blood gas showing PaCO2 of 55 mmHg
Correct Answer: B
Explanation : For a client with COPD, the target oxygen saturation is typically 88-
92% to maintain adequate tissue oxygenation without suppressing the hypoxic
drive. A pulse oximetry reading of 92% is within the target range and indicates
adequate oxygen delivery. A respiratory rate of 28 is elevated, shortness of breath
indicates inadequate oxygenation or ventilation, and a PaCO2 of 55 mmHg
indicates hypercapnia, which may be exacerbated by excessive oxygen delivery.
Question 9
A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client. Which action
should the nurse take first?
