Kansas Plans Examiner Examination
Advanced 100-Question Practice Exam
2026 | Questions & Answers with
Detailed Rationales | Complete Exam
Prep & Study Guide
1.
A proposed three-story Group R-2 building contains 14,500 square feet and is
submitted for review in a Kansas jurisdiction. What should the plans examiner
establish before beginning the technical review?
A. Only the contractor's license classification
B. The applicable adopted codes, editions, amendments, and reviewing authority
C. Only the plumbing code
D. Only the zoning district
Answer: B. The applicable adopted codes, editions, amendments, and reviewing
authority
Rationale: The first step in a defensible plan review is determining which codes
and amendments legally apply to the project. Kansas jurisdictions may have
different locally adopted requirements because Kansas is a home-rule state for
many building-code matters.
,2.
A building is proposed with an assembly area having an occupant load of 2,400
persons. Under Kansas State Fire Marshal code-footprint requirements, which
classification is specifically identified for state review?
A. Any Group B building
B. Any Group M building
C. A Group A assembly occupancy with a combined occupant load exceeding
2,000 persons
D. Any Group S building exceeding 10,000 square feet
Answer: C. A Group A assembly occupancy with a combined occupant load
exceeding 2,000 persons
Rationale: Kansas State Fire Marshal guidance specifically identifies Group A
assembly occupancies with a combined occupant load exceeding 2,000 persons
as requiring a code footprint.
3.
A designer submits plans for a Group E school addition but provides no code
analysis identifying construction type, occupancy, occupant load, or allowable
area. What is the most appropriate plan-review response?
A. Approve the plans because the architect sealed them
B. Require the missing code analysis before the review can be completed
C. Review only the electrical drawings
D. Ignore the missing information until final inspection
Answer: B. Require the missing code analysis before the review can be
completed
Rationale: A plans examiner must be able to establish the project's basic code
parameters before determining compliance with area, height, construction type,
egress, fire resistance, and other provisions.
4.
,A proposed building has two different occupancies separated by a code-compliant
fire barrier. What is the primary purpose of documenting the separation on the
plans?
A. To eliminate structural design requirements
B. To establish separate zoning districts
C. To demonstrate that the occupancies can be treated independently where the
code permits
D. To eliminate accessibility requirements
Answer: C. To demonstrate that the occupancies can be treated independently
where the code permits
Rationale: Properly documented occupancy separations can affect allowable
area, egress, fire-resistance, and other requirements. The plans examiner must
verify that the separation actually satisfies the applicable code provisions.
5.
A plan indicates a 2-hour fire barrier but provides no listed assembly or tested
design. What should the plans examiner request?
A. The contractor's preferred material
B. Documentation identifying the approved fire-resistance-rated assembly
C. A paint manufacturer's warranty
D. A zoning certificate
Answer: B. Documentation identifying the approved fire-resistance-rated
assembly
Rationale: Fire-resistance ratings must be supported by an approved tested
assembly, listed system, code-prescribed assembly, or other recognized
compliance method.
6.
, A stairway serves three stories. The architectural drawings show the stair width
but do not identify the occupant load served by the stair. Why is this information
important?
A. Stair width is determined solely by building height
B. Required egress capacity may depend on the occupant load served
C. Stair width is determined by window area
D. Occupant load is irrelevant to egress design
Answer: B. Required egress capacity may depend on the occupant load served
Rationale: Plans review must establish the occupant load assigned to each
egress component so the examiner can verify required width and capacity.
7.
A 10,000-square-foot assembly room is shown with an occupant load of 100
people without an occupant-load factor or other calculation. What should the
examiner do?
A. Accept the stated load automatically
B. Require the basis for the occupant-load determination
C. Double the occupant load
D. Use the building's parking count instead
Answer: B. Require the basis for the occupant-load determination
Rationale: Occupant load is a fundamental input for egress, plumbing fixture
counts, fire protection, and other calculations. The plans should demonstrate
how the stated occupant load was established.
8.
A designer calculates occupant load using net floor area, while another portion of
the same occupancy is calculated using gross floor area. What should the plans
examiner verify?
Advanced 100-Question Practice Exam
2026 | Questions & Answers with
Detailed Rationales | Complete Exam
Prep & Study Guide
1.
A proposed three-story Group R-2 building contains 14,500 square feet and is
submitted for review in a Kansas jurisdiction. What should the plans examiner
establish before beginning the technical review?
A. Only the contractor's license classification
B. The applicable adopted codes, editions, amendments, and reviewing authority
C. Only the plumbing code
D. Only the zoning district
Answer: B. The applicable adopted codes, editions, amendments, and reviewing
authority
Rationale: The first step in a defensible plan review is determining which codes
and amendments legally apply to the project. Kansas jurisdictions may have
different locally adopted requirements because Kansas is a home-rule state for
many building-code matters.
,2.
A building is proposed with an assembly area having an occupant load of 2,400
persons. Under Kansas State Fire Marshal code-footprint requirements, which
classification is specifically identified for state review?
A. Any Group B building
B. Any Group M building
C. A Group A assembly occupancy with a combined occupant load exceeding
2,000 persons
D. Any Group S building exceeding 10,000 square feet
Answer: C. A Group A assembly occupancy with a combined occupant load
exceeding 2,000 persons
Rationale: Kansas State Fire Marshal guidance specifically identifies Group A
assembly occupancies with a combined occupant load exceeding 2,000 persons
as requiring a code footprint.
3.
A designer submits plans for a Group E school addition but provides no code
analysis identifying construction type, occupancy, occupant load, or allowable
area. What is the most appropriate plan-review response?
A. Approve the plans because the architect sealed them
B. Require the missing code analysis before the review can be completed
C. Review only the electrical drawings
D. Ignore the missing information until final inspection
Answer: B. Require the missing code analysis before the review can be
completed
Rationale: A plans examiner must be able to establish the project's basic code
parameters before determining compliance with area, height, construction type,
egress, fire resistance, and other provisions.
4.
,A proposed building has two different occupancies separated by a code-compliant
fire barrier. What is the primary purpose of documenting the separation on the
plans?
A. To eliminate structural design requirements
B. To establish separate zoning districts
C. To demonstrate that the occupancies can be treated independently where the
code permits
D. To eliminate accessibility requirements
Answer: C. To demonstrate that the occupancies can be treated independently
where the code permits
Rationale: Properly documented occupancy separations can affect allowable
area, egress, fire-resistance, and other requirements. The plans examiner must
verify that the separation actually satisfies the applicable code provisions.
5.
A plan indicates a 2-hour fire barrier but provides no listed assembly or tested
design. What should the plans examiner request?
A. The contractor's preferred material
B. Documentation identifying the approved fire-resistance-rated assembly
C. A paint manufacturer's warranty
D. A zoning certificate
Answer: B. Documentation identifying the approved fire-resistance-rated
assembly
Rationale: Fire-resistance ratings must be supported by an approved tested
assembly, listed system, code-prescribed assembly, or other recognized
compliance method.
6.
, A stairway serves three stories. The architectural drawings show the stair width
but do not identify the occupant load served by the stair. Why is this information
important?
A. Stair width is determined solely by building height
B. Required egress capacity may depend on the occupant load served
C. Stair width is determined by window area
D. Occupant load is irrelevant to egress design
Answer: B. Required egress capacity may depend on the occupant load served
Rationale: Plans review must establish the occupant load assigned to each
egress component so the examiner can verify required width and capacity.
7.
A 10,000-square-foot assembly room is shown with an occupant load of 100
people without an occupant-load factor or other calculation. What should the
examiner do?
A. Accept the stated load automatically
B. Require the basis for the occupant-load determination
C. Double the occupant load
D. Use the building's parking count instead
Answer: B. Require the basis for the occupant-load determination
Rationale: Occupant load is a fundamental input for egress, plumbing fixture
counts, fire protection, and other calculations. The plans should demonstrate
how the stated occupant load was established.
8.
A designer calculates occupant load using net floor area, while another portion of
the same occupancy is calculated using gross floor area. What should the plans
examiner verify?
