COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE EXAM WITH ALL
POSSIBLE APPROVED WELL ELABORATED
PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT
VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES
PLUS EXPERT ANSWER KEY (100% CORRECT
VERIFIED SOLUTIONS) 2026-2027 CURRENTLY
UPDATED VERSION Q&A GUARANTEED PASS A+
INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
1. A client with chronic heart failure is prescribed
digoxin. Which assessment finding indicates a
therapeutic response to this medication?
A. Heart rate of 54 beats per minute
B. Elevated blood pressure
C. Increased urinary output
D. Presence of pitting edema
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Digoxin increases the force of myocardial
contraction, improving cardiac output and renal
,perfusion. Increased urinary output reflects
improved renal blood flow and reduced fluid
retention, indicating a therapeutic response.
Bradycardia (A) may indicate toxicity. Elevated
blood pressure is not a direct therapeutic effect.
Pitting edema (D) indicates worsening failure.
2. A client is 2 hours’ post-percutaneous coronary
intervention via the femoral artery. Which
assessment finding requires immediate action?
A. Pulse of 88 bpm
B. Blood pressure of 118/76 mmHg
C. Expanding groin hematoma
D. Urine output of 40 mL/hr
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An expanding groin hematoma indicates
active bleeding or inadequate hemostasis at the
puncture site. This is a critical finding requiring
immediate pressure and provider notification. The
other options are within normal limits for a post-
procedure client.
,3. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed
warfarin. Which laboratory value is most important
to monitor for this medication?
A. Serum potassium
B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C. Platelet count
D. Serum creatinine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that
requires close monitoring of the INR to maintain a
therapeutic range (typically 2-3 for atrial
fibrillation). This ensures adequate anticoagulation
while minimizing bleeding risk. Potassium (A) is
relevant for diuretics. Platelets (C) are monitored for
heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. Creatinine (D) is
important for renally excreted drugs.
4. A client presents with chest pain radiating to the
jaw, diaphoresis, and nausea. What is the priority
nursing action?
A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
B. Obtain a 12-lead ECG
C. Apply oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula
, D. Assess pain level using a 0-10 scale
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The priority is to obtain a 12-lead ECG
within 10 minutes of arrival to determine if ST-
segment elevation is present, guiding reperfusion
therapy. While nitroglycerin, oxygen, and pain
assessment are important, the ECG is the most time-
sensitive diagnostic step for acute coronary
syndrome.
5. A client with heart failure has a new prescription
for lisinopril. Which adverse effect should the nurse
teach the client to report immediately?
A. Dry cough
B. Dizziness
C. Angioedema
D. Hyperkalemia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Angioedema (swelling of the face, lips,
tongue, or airway) is a rare but life-threatening
adverse effect of ACE inhibitors like lisinopril and
requires immediate medical attention. Dry cough (A)
is common but not emergent. Dizziness (B) may