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HESI PN EXIT ACCURATE PRACTICE EXAM WITH ALL POSSIBLE APPROVED WELL ELABORATED PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES PLUS EXPERT ANSWER KEY (100% CORRECT VERIFIED SOLUTIONS) CURRENTLY UPDATED VERSION Q&A G

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HESI PN EXIT ACCURATE PRACTICE EXAM WITH ALL POSSIBLE APPROVED WELL ELABORATED PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES PLUS EXPERT ANSWER KEY (100% CORRECT VERIFIED SOLUTIONS) CURRENTLY UPDATED VERSION Q&A GUARANTEED PASS A+ INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF

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HESI PN EXIT ACCURATE PRACTICE EXAM WITH
ALL POSSIBLE APPROVED WELL ELABORATED
PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT
VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES
PLUS EXPERT ANSWER KEY (100% CORRECT
VERIFIED SOLUTIONS) 2026-2027 CURRENTLY
UPDATED VERSION Q&A GUARANTEED PASS A+
INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF




Question 1
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 liters per minute via
nasal cannula. The nurse assesses the client and
notes that the client is lethargic and difficult to
arouse. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 4 liters per
minute.
B. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position.
C. Check the client's oxygen saturation level.

,D. Assess the client's respiratory rate and depth.
Correct Answer: C. Check the client's oxygen
saturation level.
Rationale: The client's lethargy may indicate
hypoxia or hypercapnia. The first action is to assess
the client's oxygen saturation to determine if the
current oxygen therapy is adequate or if the client
is experiencing oxygen-induced hypoventilation.
While assessing respiratory rate and depth (D) is
important, obtaining a rapid, objective
measurement of oxygenation (SpO2) is the priority
to guide immediate interventions. Increasing
oxygen without assessment could be harmful if the
client is retaining carbon dioxide. High-Fowler's
position (B) is beneficial but does not address the
immediate assessment needed.
Question 2
A client who is 1 day post-operative following an
abdominal hysterectomy reports sudden, sharp
chest pain and shortness of breath. The nurse notes
that the client's heart rate is 110 beats per minute
and respiratory rate is 28 breaths per minute. Which

,condition should the nurse suspect?
A. Atelectasis
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Pneumonia
D. Incisional pain
Correct Answer: B. Pulmonary embolism
Rationale: The sudden onset of sharp chest pain,
dyspnea, and tachycardia in a post-operative client
are classic signs of a pulmonary embolism (PE).
Post-operative clients are at high risk for venous
thromboembolism due to immobility and the
hypercoagulable state of surgery. Atelectasis (A)
and pneumonia (C) typically have a more gradual
onset and are often accompanied by fever and
productive cough. Incisional pain (D) would be
localized to the surgical site and not typically cause
acute chest pain and shortness of breath.
Question 3
A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client
with heart failure. Which assessment finding should
prompt the nurse to withhold the medication and
contact the healthcare provider?

, A. Apical pulse of 58 beats per minute
B. Serum potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L
C. Client reports mild nausea
D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
Correct Answer: A. Apical pulse of 58 beats per
minute
Rationale: Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that slows
the heart rate and increases the force of
contraction. The nurse should assess the apical
pulse for one full minute before administration. A
pulse rate below 60 beats per minute is a common
parameter for withholding digoxin due to the risk
of severe bradycardia and heart block. A serum
potassium of 3.8 mEq/L (B) is within normal limits,
though hypokalemia can increase the risk of
digoxin toxicity. Nausea (C) is a sign of digoxin
toxicity, but a low pulse is a more immediate and
critical reason to withhold the drug. A blood
pressure of 110/70 (D) is acceptable.
Question 4
A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed
metformin. The nurse includes which instruction in

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