Surveyor Minimum Qualifications Test with correct answers plus
rationales 2026/2027 version
1. A surveyor is conducting an initial pool review in a skilled nursing facility. Which action
best describes the primary purpose of this phase of the survey process?
A. To complete the entire medical record review for all residents.
B. To briefly screen all residents to identify potential areas of concern and determine the initial
sample.
C. To interview every resident about their quality of life.
D. To issue citations for all identified deficiencies immediately.
Correct Answer: B. The initial pool process is designed to quickly screen all residents to identify
triggers and select a representative sample for in-depth investigation; it is not the phase for full
record review or citation issuance.
2. A surveyor observes that a resident with a known history of falls has bed rails in the
raised position. The resident is unable to lower the rails independently. Which F-Tag is
most relevant to this observation?
A. F-Tag 609 (Reporting of abuse/neglect).
B. F-Tag 689 (Free from accidents/supervision/devices).
C. F-Tag 880 (Infection prevention and control).
D. F-Tag 740 (Quality of life).
Correct Answer: B. F-Tag 689 addresses the facility's responsibility to ensure a safe
environment and that restraints or devices are used appropriately to prevent accidents; bed rails
that restrict a resident's ability to get up may be considered a restraint and require assessment.
3. A resident has been on an antipsychotic medication for 8 months. The surveyor notes
that no gradual dose reduction (GDR) has been attempted. What is the most appropriate
surveyor action?
A. Cite the facility for unnecessary medications under F-Tag 757.
B. Recommend continuing the current dose for stability.
C. Ignore the issue if the resident appears calm.
D. Request a psychiatric consultation.
Correct Answer: A. F-Tag 757 requires that a GDR be attempted within the first year of
admission for residents on psychotropic medications; failure to attempt a GDR is a deficiency in
unnecessary medication management.
,4. During a medication pass observation, a surveyor notes that a nurse crushes a long-
acting extended-release tablet and mixes it with applesauce. What is the most appropriate
surveyor response?
A. Note that crushing extended-release medications is acceptable if mixed with food.
B. Educate the nurse on the spot.
C. Cite a deficiency for improper medication administration.
D. Document the observation and discuss with the pharmacy consultant.
Correct Answer: C. Crushing extended-release or enteric-coated medications alters their release
mechanism and can cause dose dumping or toxicity; this is a medication administration error
and warrants citation.
5. A surveyor is reviewing the Minimum Data Set (MDS) for a resident who had a
significant decline in functional status. Which type of MDS assessment should have been
completed?
A. Quarterly assessment.
B. Significant change assessment.
C. Annual assessment.
D. Admission assessment.
Correct Answer: B. A significant change assessment (SCSA) is required when a resident
experiences a major decline or improvement in status that is not expected to resolve; it triggers a
comprehensive reassessment.
6. A resident's weight has decreased from 150 lbs to 142 lbs over 30 days. Which of the
following best describes this weight loss?
A. Clinically insignificant.
B. Significant weight loss (5% in 30 days).
C. Severe weight loss (>5% in 30 days).
D. Expected age-related weight loss.
Correct Answer: B. A 5% weight loss in 30 days is defined as significant; a >5% loss in 30 days
or >10% in 180 days is considered severe weight loss and requires investigation.
7. A surveyor notes that an exit corridor in the facility is measured at 7 feet in width. What
is the most appropriate action?
A. Note that the corridor meets the minimum requirement.
B. Cite a deficiency for insufficient corridor width.
C. Measure the corridor again at a different point.
, D. Refer the issue to the fire marshal only.
Correct Answer: B. Exit corridors must be at least 8 feet wide in new construction and often in
existing facilities; 7 feet is below the standard and represents a life safety code deficiency.
8. A surveyor is interviewing a resident who reports feeling rushed during meals and
frequently not receiving assistance with eating. Which surveyor action best reflects
resident-centered investigation?
A. Interview the nursing assistant assigned to the resident.
B. Observe the next mealtime for this resident.
C. Review the resident's care plan for nutritional needs.
D. All of the above.
Correct Answer: D. Resident-centered, outcome-oriented investigation includes multiple
approaches: interviewing staff, observing care delivery, and reviewing the care plan to
determine if the facility is meeting the resident's needs.
9. A resident is receiving an antidepressant and an antipsychotic concurrently without
clear indication for the antipsychotic. What term best describes this situation?
A. Polypharmacy.
B. Appropriate combination therapy.
C. Unnecessary medication.
D. Standard of care.
Correct Answer: C. Unnecessary medications are those used without adequate indication, in
excessive doses, or for excessive durations; an antipsychotic without a clear diagnosis is
considered unnecessary, even if an antidepressant is also prescribed.
10. During the facility entrance conference, the survey team leader should accomplish
which of the following?
A. Issue a list of all deficiencies to be cited.
B. Provide the facility with a copy of the survey plan.
C. Complete all resident interviews.
D. Conduct the kitchen inspection.
Correct Answer: B. The entrance conference is the time to introduce the team, explain the survey
process, and provide the facility with an overview of the survey plan and schedule; deficiencies
are cited at the exit conference.
rationales 2026/2027 version
1. A surveyor is conducting an initial pool review in a skilled nursing facility. Which action
best describes the primary purpose of this phase of the survey process?
A. To complete the entire medical record review for all residents.
B. To briefly screen all residents to identify potential areas of concern and determine the initial
sample.
C. To interview every resident about their quality of life.
D. To issue citations for all identified deficiencies immediately.
Correct Answer: B. The initial pool process is designed to quickly screen all residents to identify
triggers and select a representative sample for in-depth investigation; it is not the phase for full
record review or citation issuance.
2. A surveyor observes that a resident with a known history of falls has bed rails in the
raised position. The resident is unable to lower the rails independently. Which F-Tag is
most relevant to this observation?
A. F-Tag 609 (Reporting of abuse/neglect).
B. F-Tag 689 (Free from accidents/supervision/devices).
C. F-Tag 880 (Infection prevention and control).
D. F-Tag 740 (Quality of life).
Correct Answer: B. F-Tag 689 addresses the facility's responsibility to ensure a safe
environment and that restraints or devices are used appropriately to prevent accidents; bed rails
that restrict a resident's ability to get up may be considered a restraint and require assessment.
3. A resident has been on an antipsychotic medication for 8 months. The surveyor notes
that no gradual dose reduction (GDR) has been attempted. What is the most appropriate
surveyor action?
A. Cite the facility for unnecessary medications under F-Tag 757.
B. Recommend continuing the current dose for stability.
C. Ignore the issue if the resident appears calm.
D. Request a psychiatric consultation.
Correct Answer: A. F-Tag 757 requires that a GDR be attempted within the first year of
admission for residents on psychotropic medications; failure to attempt a GDR is a deficiency in
unnecessary medication management.
,4. During a medication pass observation, a surveyor notes that a nurse crushes a long-
acting extended-release tablet and mixes it with applesauce. What is the most appropriate
surveyor response?
A. Note that crushing extended-release medications is acceptable if mixed with food.
B. Educate the nurse on the spot.
C. Cite a deficiency for improper medication administration.
D. Document the observation and discuss with the pharmacy consultant.
Correct Answer: C. Crushing extended-release or enteric-coated medications alters their release
mechanism and can cause dose dumping or toxicity; this is a medication administration error
and warrants citation.
5. A surveyor is reviewing the Minimum Data Set (MDS) for a resident who had a
significant decline in functional status. Which type of MDS assessment should have been
completed?
A. Quarterly assessment.
B. Significant change assessment.
C. Annual assessment.
D. Admission assessment.
Correct Answer: B. A significant change assessment (SCSA) is required when a resident
experiences a major decline or improvement in status that is not expected to resolve; it triggers a
comprehensive reassessment.
6. A resident's weight has decreased from 150 lbs to 142 lbs over 30 days. Which of the
following best describes this weight loss?
A. Clinically insignificant.
B. Significant weight loss (5% in 30 days).
C. Severe weight loss (>5% in 30 days).
D. Expected age-related weight loss.
Correct Answer: B. A 5% weight loss in 30 days is defined as significant; a >5% loss in 30 days
or >10% in 180 days is considered severe weight loss and requires investigation.
7. A surveyor notes that an exit corridor in the facility is measured at 7 feet in width. What
is the most appropriate action?
A. Note that the corridor meets the minimum requirement.
B. Cite a deficiency for insufficient corridor width.
C. Measure the corridor again at a different point.
, D. Refer the issue to the fire marshal only.
Correct Answer: B. Exit corridors must be at least 8 feet wide in new construction and often in
existing facilities; 7 feet is below the standard and represents a life safety code deficiency.
8. A surveyor is interviewing a resident who reports feeling rushed during meals and
frequently not receiving assistance with eating. Which surveyor action best reflects
resident-centered investigation?
A. Interview the nursing assistant assigned to the resident.
B. Observe the next mealtime for this resident.
C. Review the resident's care plan for nutritional needs.
D. All of the above.
Correct Answer: D. Resident-centered, outcome-oriented investigation includes multiple
approaches: interviewing staff, observing care delivery, and reviewing the care plan to
determine if the facility is meeting the resident's needs.
9. A resident is receiving an antidepressant and an antipsychotic concurrently without
clear indication for the antipsychotic. What term best describes this situation?
A. Polypharmacy.
B. Appropriate combination therapy.
C. Unnecessary medication.
D. Standard of care.
Correct Answer: C. Unnecessary medications are those used without adequate indication, in
excessive doses, or for excessive durations; an antipsychotic without a clear diagnosis is
considered unnecessary, even if an antidepressant is also prescribed.
10. During the facility entrance conference, the survey team leader should accomplish
which of the following?
A. Issue a list of all deficiencies to be cited.
B. Provide the facility with a copy of the survey plan.
C. Complete all resident interviews.
D. Conduct the kitchen inspection.
Correct Answer: B. The entrance conference is the time to introduce the team, explain the survey
process, and provide the facility with an overview of the survey plan and schedule; deficiencies
are cited at the exit conference.
