NURS 306 WEEK 1 OB QUIZ WITH
COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE
QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS |
(2026 UPDATE) |100% CORRECT | WCU
1. A pregnant client presents to the clinic after a prenatal test detected that her
baby boy had a Y-linked inheritance disorder. The client indicates an
understanding of Y-linked inheritance disorder when she makes which
statement?
• A) "Both my partner and I carry this trait and passed it along to our baby."
• B) "I am a carrier, so I passed this disease to my baby."
• C) "I understand that I also present with this trait and need to be tested."
• D) "This disease was passed from my male partner to my baby."
Rationale: Y-linked inheritance is a sex-linked inheritance located on the Y-
chromosome; the disease can only be passed from father to son .
2. A nurse is providing education to a client at 8 weeks of gestation. The client
asks why she must avoid certain medications. What is the nurse's best
response?
• A) "The first 8 weeks are the period of organogenesis, when your baby is
most vulnerable to teratogens."
• B) "The first 8 weeks are when the baby's sex is determined, which can be
affected by medications."
• C) "The first 8 weeks are when the placenta is forming, so medications can
affect its development."
• D) "The first 8 weeks are the period of fetal growth, and medications can
cause the baby to grow too quickly."
Rationale: The embryonic period (weeks 2-8) is organogenesis, the most
critical time for teratogenic effects .
3. A nurse is calculating the due date for a client whose last menstrual period
(LMP) began on May 4. Using Naegele's rule, what is the estimated due date?
• A) February 11
• B) February 9
, • C) January 28
• D) March 4
Rationale: Naegele's rule: subtract 3 months from LMP and add 7 days. May 4
→ February 4 + 7 days = February 11 .
4. A nurse is assessing a client at 28 weeks of gestation. The client has a history
of one elective abortion at 9 weeks, a twin birth at 36 weeks, and one
spontaneous abortion at 15 weeks. What is the correct GTPAL for this client?
• A) G4 T0 P1 A2 L2
• B) G4 T1 P0 A2 L2
• C) G3 T1 P1 A1 L2
• D) G4 T0 P2 A1 L2
Rationale: G (Gravida) = 4 total pregnancies. T (Term) = 0 births at term
(≥37wks). P (Preterm) = 1 (twins at 36wks). A (Abortions) = 2 (9wk & 15wk). L
(Living) = 2 (twins) .
5. Which of the following is considered a positive sign of pregnancy?
• A) A positive home pregnancy test
• B) Chadwick's sign
• C) Fetal heart tones detected by ultrasound
• D) Goodell's sign
Rationale: Positive signs are those only explained by pregnancy, including
fetal heart tones, fetal movement felt by examiner, and visualization on
ultrasound .
6. A nurse is caring for a client who is 38 weeks of gestation with
polyhydramnios. Which of the following best describes this condition?
• A) A deficiency of amniotic fluid
• B) A normal amount of amniotic fluid
• C) An excessive amount of amniotic fluid
• D) An infection of the amniotic fluid
Rationale: Polyhydramnios is an excessive amount of amniotic fluid (>2000
mL), often associated with maternal diabetes or fetal anomalies .
7. A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant with a male child and expresses
concern about the possibility of the child having hemophilia. The client is a
carrier of the gene mutation. Which percentage represents the chance that the
child will have this disorder?
• A) 25%
• B) 50%
, • C) 75%
• D) 100%
Rationale: Hemophilia A is X-linked recessive. A male child has a 50% chance
of inheriting the affected X chromosome from his carrier mother .
8. A nurse is visiting the home of a woman who recently had a fetal demise.
Toxoplasmosis is suspected. Which finding would confirm the possibility of
toxoplasmosis exposure?
• A) History of a sexually transmitted infection
• B) History of frequently smoking marijuana
• C) Having poor air quality at home
• D) Having many cats at home
Rationale: Toxoplasmosis is a parasitic infection often transmitted through
contact with cat feces or consuming undercooked meat .
9. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 20 weeks gestation. The client asks
what the baby looks like at this point. Which response is accurate?
• A) "Lanugo has disappeared."
• B) "The fetus resembles a human."
• C) "The arm and leg buds are noticeable."
• D) "Subcutaneous fat gives the body a wrinkled appearance."
Rationale: By 20 weeks, the fetus has a more human appearance, though it
will continue to grow and develop .
10. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor. The client asks, "Why are you
pressing on my abdomen?" Which response should the nurse make?
• A) "I can determine your baby's heart rate."
• B) "I can confirm that you have sufficient fluid around your baby."
• C) "I can confirm that your baby moves with simulation."
• D) "I can determine the position of your baby."
Rationale: Abdominal palpation helps determine fetal position and
presentation .
11. A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant and whose LMP began on April
8. Using Naegele's rule, which date would be the estimated date of birth (EDB)?
• A) July 15
• B) July 11
• C) January 11
• D) January 15
, Rationale: April 8 → January 8 + 7 days = January 15.
12. A nurse is providing teaching about the rubella immunization to a client
who is 24 hours postpartum. Which statement indicates an understanding of
the teaching?
• A) "I should not breastfeed for at least 3 days."
• B) "I will need a second rubella booster at 6 weeks."
• C) "I should be careful to avoid becoming pregnant within the next
month."
• D) "This vaccine will be given into my arm muscle."
Rationale: Rubella vaccine is a live virus vaccine and should not be given
during pregnancy; pregnancy should be avoided for 1 month post-
vaccination .
13. A nurse is providing education to a female client of child-bearing age.
Which structure expels the mature ovum?
• A) Blastocyst
• B) Fallopian tube
• C) Corpus luteum
• D) Graafian follicle
Rationale: The Graafian follicle is the mature ovarian follicle that ruptures and
releases the ovum during ovulation.
14. A nurse is caring for a client with an autosomal recessive disease. Which
diseases follow this pattern? (Select all that apply)
• A) Cystic fibrosis
• B) Hemophilia
• C) Tay-Sachs disease
• D) Sickle-cell anemia
Rationale: Cystic fibrosis, Tay-Sachs, and Sickle-cell anemia are autosomal
recessive. Hemophilia is X-linked .
15. A nurse is caring for a client who is in the second trimester of pregnancy.
Which statement indicates effective adaptation to the new role as an expecting
parent?
• A) "I am worried about how this will change my relationship with my partner."
• B) "I feel like I don't have control over my body anymore."
• C) "I like it when my baby moves around in my stomach."
• D) "I'm not sure I'm ready to be a mother."
COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE
QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS |
(2026 UPDATE) |100% CORRECT | WCU
1. A pregnant client presents to the clinic after a prenatal test detected that her
baby boy had a Y-linked inheritance disorder. The client indicates an
understanding of Y-linked inheritance disorder when she makes which
statement?
• A) "Both my partner and I carry this trait and passed it along to our baby."
• B) "I am a carrier, so I passed this disease to my baby."
• C) "I understand that I also present with this trait and need to be tested."
• D) "This disease was passed from my male partner to my baby."
Rationale: Y-linked inheritance is a sex-linked inheritance located on the Y-
chromosome; the disease can only be passed from father to son .
2. A nurse is providing education to a client at 8 weeks of gestation. The client
asks why she must avoid certain medications. What is the nurse's best
response?
• A) "The first 8 weeks are the period of organogenesis, when your baby is
most vulnerable to teratogens."
• B) "The first 8 weeks are when the baby's sex is determined, which can be
affected by medications."
• C) "The first 8 weeks are when the placenta is forming, so medications can
affect its development."
• D) "The first 8 weeks are the period of fetal growth, and medications can
cause the baby to grow too quickly."
Rationale: The embryonic period (weeks 2-8) is organogenesis, the most
critical time for teratogenic effects .
3. A nurse is calculating the due date for a client whose last menstrual period
(LMP) began on May 4. Using Naegele's rule, what is the estimated due date?
• A) February 11
• B) February 9
, • C) January 28
• D) March 4
Rationale: Naegele's rule: subtract 3 months from LMP and add 7 days. May 4
→ February 4 + 7 days = February 11 .
4. A nurse is assessing a client at 28 weeks of gestation. The client has a history
of one elective abortion at 9 weeks, a twin birth at 36 weeks, and one
spontaneous abortion at 15 weeks. What is the correct GTPAL for this client?
• A) G4 T0 P1 A2 L2
• B) G4 T1 P0 A2 L2
• C) G3 T1 P1 A1 L2
• D) G4 T0 P2 A1 L2
Rationale: G (Gravida) = 4 total pregnancies. T (Term) = 0 births at term
(≥37wks). P (Preterm) = 1 (twins at 36wks). A (Abortions) = 2 (9wk & 15wk). L
(Living) = 2 (twins) .
5. Which of the following is considered a positive sign of pregnancy?
• A) A positive home pregnancy test
• B) Chadwick's sign
• C) Fetal heart tones detected by ultrasound
• D) Goodell's sign
Rationale: Positive signs are those only explained by pregnancy, including
fetal heart tones, fetal movement felt by examiner, and visualization on
ultrasound .
6. A nurse is caring for a client who is 38 weeks of gestation with
polyhydramnios. Which of the following best describes this condition?
• A) A deficiency of amniotic fluid
• B) A normal amount of amniotic fluid
• C) An excessive amount of amniotic fluid
• D) An infection of the amniotic fluid
Rationale: Polyhydramnios is an excessive amount of amniotic fluid (>2000
mL), often associated with maternal diabetes or fetal anomalies .
7. A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant with a male child and expresses
concern about the possibility of the child having hemophilia. The client is a
carrier of the gene mutation. Which percentage represents the chance that the
child will have this disorder?
• A) 25%
• B) 50%
, • C) 75%
• D) 100%
Rationale: Hemophilia A is X-linked recessive. A male child has a 50% chance
of inheriting the affected X chromosome from his carrier mother .
8. A nurse is visiting the home of a woman who recently had a fetal demise.
Toxoplasmosis is suspected. Which finding would confirm the possibility of
toxoplasmosis exposure?
• A) History of a sexually transmitted infection
• B) History of frequently smoking marijuana
• C) Having poor air quality at home
• D) Having many cats at home
Rationale: Toxoplasmosis is a parasitic infection often transmitted through
contact with cat feces or consuming undercooked meat .
9. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 20 weeks gestation. The client asks
what the baby looks like at this point. Which response is accurate?
• A) "Lanugo has disappeared."
• B) "The fetus resembles a human."
• C) "The arm and leg buds are noticeable."
• D) "Subcutaneous fat gives the body a wrinkled appearance."
Rationale: By 20 weeks, the fetus has a more human appearance, though it
will continue to grow and develop .
10. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor. The client asks, "Why are you
pressing on my abdomen?" Which response should the nurse make?
• A) "I can determine your baby's heart rate."
• B) "I can confirm that you have sufficient fluid around your baby."
• C) "I can confirm that your baby moves with simulation."
• D) "I can determine the position of your baby."
Rationale: Abdominal palpation helps determine fetal position and
presentation .
11. A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant and whose LMP began on April
8. Using Naegele's rule, which date would be the estimated date of birth (EDB)?
• A) July 15
• B) July 11
• C) January 11
• D) January 15
, Rationale: April 8 → January 8 + 7 days = January 15.
12. A nurse is providing teaching about the rubella immunization to a client
who is 24 hours postpartum. Which statement indicates an understanding of
the teaching?
• A) "I should not breastfeed for at least 3 days."
• B) "I will need a second rubella booster at 6 weeks."
• C) "I should be careful to avoid becoming pregnant within the next
month."
• D) "This vaccine will be given into my arm muscle."
Rationale: Rubella vaccine is a live virus vaccine and should not be given
during pregnancy; pregnancy should be avoided for 1 month post-
vaccination .
13. A nurse is providing education to a female client of child-bearing age.
Which structure expels the mature ovum?
• A) Blastocyst
• B) Fallopian tube
• C) Corpus luteum
• D) Graafian follicle
Rationale: The Graafian follicle is the mature ovarian follicle that ruptures and
releases the ovum during ovulation.
14. A nurse is caring for a client with an autosomal recessive disease. Which
diseases follow this pattern? (Select all that apply)
• A) Cystic fibrosis
• B) Hemophilia
• C) Tay-Sachs disease
• D) Sickle-cell anemia
Rationale: Cystic fibrosis, Tay-Sachs, and Sickle-cell anemia are autosomal
recessive. Hemophilia is X-linked .
15. A nurse is caring for a client who is in the second trimester of pregnancy.
Which statement indicates effective adaptation to the new role as an expecting
parent?
• A) "I am worried about how this will change my relationship with my partner."
• B) "I feel like I don't have control over my body anymore."
• C) "I like it when my baby moves around in my stomach."
• D) "I'm not sure I'm ready to be a mother."
