Organizational Psychology – Bachelor of Science in
Psychology Study Guide, Original Practice
Questions & Answers, Assessment Preparation,
Comprehensive I-O Psychology Review, Workplace
Behavior, Organizational Psychology, Employee
Motivation, Leadership, Teams & WGU Course Prep
Question 1: Which of the following best describes the primary focus of the
"organizational" side of Industrial and Organizational (I/O) Psychology?
A. Optimizing the design of machinery and workstations for efficiency.
B. The application of psychological principles to improve employee selection and
training.
C. The study of social interactions, organizational culture, leadership, and motivation.
D. The statistical analysis of compensation and benefits packages.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. The study of social interactions, organizational
culture, leadership, and motivation.
Rationale: I/O psychology is divided into two main areas. The "industrial" side focuses
on personnel issues like recruitment, selection, and training, while the "organizational"
side examines the broader social and psychological dynamics of the workplace,
including culture, motivation, and leadership .
Question 2: A company's selection process results in hiring 40% of male
applicants but only 25% of female applicants. According to the four-fifths rule,
does this indicate potential adverse impact?
A. Yes, because the selection ratio for women (25%) is less than 80% of the selection
ratio for men (40%).
B. No, because the overall selection rate is above 50%.
C. Yes, because the number of female applicants was too low.
D. No, because the company had a valid reason for the difference.
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Yes, because the selection ratio for women (25%) is less
than 80% of the selection ratio for men (40%).
Rationale: The four-fifths rule is a guideline used to detect adverse impact. Adverse
impact exists if the selection rate for a protected group is less than 80% (or four-fifths) of
the selection rate for the majority group. In this case, 80% of 40% is 32%, and the female
selection rate (25%) is below this threshold .
Question 3: What is the primary purpose of conducting a job analysis within
an organization?
,A. To determine the market value of a job for compensation purposes.
B. To systematically identify the tasks, duties, and required knowledge, skills, and
abilities (KSAs) for a job.
C. To evaluate an employee's performance against their peers.
D. To administer a personality test to potential candidates.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. To systematically identify the tasks, duties, and
required knowledge, skills, and abilities (KSAs) for a job.
Rationale: Job analysis is the foundational process in I/O psychology where the duties,
responsibilities, and necessary KSAs for a specific job are systematically identified. This
information is then used for selection, training, and performance appraisal .
Question 4: Which type of interview is generally considered the most legally
defensible and valid for predicting job performance?
A. Unstructured interview.
B. Stress interview.
C. Structured interview.
D. Panel interview.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Structured interview.
Rationale: Structured interviews, where all candidates are asked the same job-related
questions and scored using a standardized rating system, are much more reliable and
valid predictors of performance than unstructured interviews. This standardization also
makes them more legally defensible .
Question 5: According to the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), what is an
employer legally required to provide for a qualified individual with a
disability?
A. A promotion to a higher-paying position.
B. A separate, less demanding job role.
C. A reasonable accommodation to allow them to perform their job duties.
D. A medical examination to confirm the disability.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. A reasonable accommodation to allow them to perform
their job duties.
Rationale: The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) prohibits discrimination and
requires employers to provide "reasonable accommodations" to enable qualified
individuals with disabilities to perform the essential functions of their job, unless doing
so would cause undue hardship .
,Question 6: When an employee files a complaint about a workplace issue and
an internal committee makes a decision on the matter, this process is known
as:
A. Mediation.
B. Arbitration.
C. A grievance system.
D. A hostile work environment claim.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. A grievance system.
Rationale: A grievance system is an internal, organizational process that allows
employees to file complaints. A designated person or committee within the organization
then reviews the complaint and makes a binding decision regarding its resolution .
Question 7: A manager rates an employee highly in all areas of performance
because they are impressed with the employee's punctuality. This is an
example of which performance appraisal error?
A. Halo effect.
B. Leniency error.
C. Contrast error.
D. Central tendency error.
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Halo effect.
Rationale: The halo effect occurs when a rater allows a single positive characteristic (like
punctuality) to influence ratings on all other, unrelated performance dimensions. This
can lead to inflated and inaccurate overall performance scores .
Question 8: The "Galatea effect" in the workplace suggests that:
A. Low expectations from a leader lead to decreased performance.
B. High expectations from a leader lead to increased performance.
C. An individual's high self-expectations lead to improved performance.
D. Employees are motivated primarily by external rewards.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. An individual's high self-expectations lead to improved
performance.
Rationale: The Galatea effect is a self-fulfilling prophecy where an individual's belief in
their own ability to succeed directly enhances their performance. This is distinct from
the Pygmalion effect, which is driven by the expectations of a leader or supervisor .
Question 9: Which of the following is a key component of the "unfreeze" stage
in Lewin's three-step model of change management?
, A. Implementing new processes and technologies.
B. Creating a compelling reason for change and challenging the status quo.
C. Establishing new performance metrics.
D. Celebrating the success of the change.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Creating a compelling reason for change and
challenging the status quo.
Rationale: Lewin's model outlines change in three stages: Unfreeze, Change, and
Refreeze. The "unfreeze" stage is the crucial first step where you must create a sense of
urgency and prepare the organization to accept that change is necessary by dismantling
the current mindset and procedures .
Question 10: What is the primary legal doctrine that generally allows an
employer to terminate an employee for any reason, or no reason at all?
A. Bona Fide Occupational Qualification (BFOQ).
B. The four-fifths rule.
C. Employment-at-will doctrine.
D. Affirmative action.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Employment-at-will doctrine.
Rationale: The employment-at-will doctrine is a common law principle in most US states
which holds that either the employer or the employee can terminate the employment
relationship at any time, with or without cause or prior notice, as long as the termination
does not violate a contract or anti-discrimination law .
Question 11: Which assessment method is most focused on identifying an
employee's potential to perform in the future, rather than their past
performance?
A. Critical incidents.
B. Assessment centers.
C. Forced distribution.
D. Trait-based appraisal.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Assessment centers.
Rationale: Assessment centers are used to evaluate employees' potential for future roles
by putting them through a series of simulations and exercises that mimic the demands
of the target job. This is a form of predictive evaluation, often used for selection and
promotion decisions .
Question 12: In performance appraisal, "contrast error" occurs when: