Florida Board of Dentistry Dentist
Licensure Examination Practice Questions
& [Verified Answers], Plus Explained
Rationales|2026 Latest Update| Instant
Download PDF
1.
A 45-year-old patient presents with a mandibular first molar that has
extensive caries and spontaneous lingering pain. The tooth is sensitive
to cold, and the pain persists for more than 30 seconds after the
stimulus is removed. Percussion produces mild discomfort. There is no
swelling or sinus tract. Which pulpal diagnosis is most appropriate?
A. Normal pulp
B. Reversible pulpitis
C. Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis
D. Pulp necrosis
Answer: C. Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis
Rationale: Persistent, spontaneous, or lingering thermal pain is
characteristic of symptomatic irreversible pulpitis. Reversible pulpitis
generally produces brief pain that resolves quickly after removal of
the stimulus. Pulp necrosis usually produces no response to thermal
testing, although surrounding tissues may become symptomatic if
apical inflammation develops.
1|Page
,2.
A patient has a deep carious lesion on the mandibular second premolar.
The tooth responds normally to cold testing, and there is no percussion
sensitivity. The dentist removes the infected dentin while preserving
affected dentin near the pulp. Which treatment principle is being used?
A. Nonselective caries removal
B. Selective caries removal
C. Pulpectomy
D. Apical curettage
Answer: B. Selective caries removal
Rationale: Selective caries removal involves removing diseased dentin
while intentionally preserving some affected dentin near the pulp to
reduce the risk of pulp exposure. This approach can be appropriate in
deep lesions when the pulp is vital and there are no clinical signs of
irreversible pulpal disease.
3.
A 28-year-old patient presents with generalized gingival bleeding,
abundant plaque, and probing depths of 2–3 mm without clinical
attachment loss. Radiographs show no alveolar bone loss. Which
diagnosis is most appropriate?
A. Stage III periodontitis
B. Necrotizing periodontitis
C. Plaque-induced gingivitis
D. Periodontal abscess
Answer: C. Plaque-induced gingivitis
2|Page
,Rationale: Gingivitis is characterized by inflammation of the gingiva
without loss of periodontal attachment. Plaque accumulation,
erythema, edema, and bleeding on probing are typical findings.
Periodontitis requires loss of periodontal supporting tissues.
4.
A patient taking warfarin requires a routine dental extraction. What is
the most appropriate initial approach?
A. Automatically discontinue warfarin for 7 days
B. Obtain an appropriate recent INR and assess bleeding risk
C. Replace warfarin with aspirin
D. Refuse treatment because extraction is contraindicated
Answer: B. Obtain an appropriate recent INR and assess bleeding risk
Rationale: Anticoagulation should not be discontinued automatically
because doing so can expose the patient to thromboembolic risk. The
dentist should evaluate the INR, medical history, procedural bleeding
risk, and need for physician consultation. Local hemostatic measures
are often important.
5.
A patient develops facial swelling, fever, malaise, and difficulty
swallowing from an odontogenic infection. Which finding most strongly
indicates a potentially life-threatening dental infection requiring urgent
management?
A. Mild gingival bleeding
B. Localized enamel discoloration
3|Page
, C. Dysphagia with progressive facial or neck swelling
D. Mild sensitivity to cold
Answer: C. Dysphagia with progressive facial or neck swelling
Rationale: Dysphagia, dyspnea, floor-of-mouth elevation, trismus, and
rapidly progressive facial or neck swelling may indicate spread into
deep fascial spaces and threaten the airway. Such patients require
urgent evaluation and possible hospital-based management rather
than routine outpatient dental treatment.
6.
During treatment, a patient suddenly becomes pale, sweaty,
nauseated, and briefly loses consciousness. The patient is breathing and
has a palpable pulse. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Vasovagal syncope
B. Anaphylaxis
C. Acute myocardial infarction
D. Hyperglycemic crisis
Answer: A. Vasovagal syncope
Rationale: Vasovagal syncope commonly presents with pallor,
diaphoresis, nausea, hypotension, and transient loss of consciousness.
The initial management includes positioning the patient
appropriately, maintaining the airway, monitoring vital signs, and
identifying contributing factors such as anxiety or pain.
7.
4|Page
Licensure Examination Practice Questions
& [Verified Answers], Plus Explained
Rationales|2026 Latest Update| Instant
Download PDF
1.
A 45-year-old patient presents with a mandibular first molar that has
extensive caries and spontaneous lingering pain. The tooth is sensitive
to cold, and the pain persists for more than 30 seconds after the
stimulus is removed. Percussion produces mild discomfort. There is no
swelling or sinus tract. Which pulpal diagnosis is most appropriate?
A. Normal pulp
B. Reversible pulpitis
C. Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis
D. Pulp necrosis
Answer: C. Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis
Rationale: Persistent, spontaneous, or lingering thermal pain is
characteristic of symptomatic irreversible pulpitis. Reversible pulpitis
generally produces brief pain that resolves quickly after removal of
the stimulus. Pulp necrosis usually produces no response to thermal
testing, although surrounding tissues may become symptomatic if
apical inflammation develops.
1|Page
,2.
A patient has a deep carious lesion on the mandibular second premolar.
The tooth responds normally to cold testing, and there is no percussion
sensitivity. The dentist removes the infected dentin while preserving
affected dentin near the pulp. Which treatment principle is being used?
A. Nonselective caries removal
B. Selective caries removal
C. Pulpectomy
D. Apical curettage
Answer: B. Selective caries removal
Rationale: Selective caries removal involves removing diseased dentin
while intentionally preserving some affected dentin near the pulp to
reduce the risk of pulp exposure. This approach can be appropriate in
deep lesions when the pulp is vital and there are no clinical signs of
irreversible pulpal disease.
3.
A 28-year-old patient presents with generalized gingival bleeding,
abundant plaque, and probing depths of 2–3 mm without clinical
attachment loss. Radiographs show no alveolar bone loss. Which
diagnosis is most appropriate?
A. Stage III periodontitis
B. Necrotizing periodontitis
C. Plaque-induced gingivitis
D. Periodontal abscess
Answer: C. Plaque-induced gingivitis
2|Page
,Rationale: Gingivitis is characterized by inflammation of the gingiva
without loss of periodontal attachment. Plaque accumulation,
erythema, edema, and bleeding on probing are typical findings.
Periodontitis requires loss of periodontal supporting tissues.
4.
A patient taking warfarin requires a routine dental extraction. What is
the most appropriate initial approach?
A. Automatically discontinue warfarin for 7 days
B. Obtain an appropriate recent INR and assess bleeding risk
C. Replace warfarin with aspirin
D. Refuse treatment because extraction is contraindicated
Answer: B. Obtain an appropriate recent INR and assess bleeding risk
Rationale: Anticoagulation should not be discontinued automatically
because doing so can expose the patient to thromboembolic risk. The
dentist should evaluate the INR, medical history, procedural bleeding
risk, and need for physician consultation. Local hemostatic measures
are often important.
5.
A patient develops facial swelling, fever, malaise, and difficulty
swallowing from an odontogenic infection. Which finding most strongly
indicates a potentially life-threatening dental infection requiring urgent
management?
A. Mild gingival bleeding
B. Localized enamel discoloration
3|Page
, C. Dysphagia with progressive facial or neck swelling
D. Mild sensitivity to cold
Answer: C. Dysphagia with progressive facial or neck swelling
Rationale: Dysphagia, dyspnea, floor-of-mouth elevation, trismus, and
rapidly progressive facial or neck swelling may indicate spread into
deep fascial spaces and threaten the airway. Such patients require
urgent evaluation and possible hospital-based management rather
than routine outpatient dental treatment.
6.
During treatment, a patient suddenly becomes pale, sweaty,
nauseated, and briefly loses consciousness. The patient is breathing and
has a palpable pulse. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Vasovagal syncope
B. Anaphylaxis
C. Acute myocardial infarction
D. Hyperglycemic crisis
Answer: A. Vasovagal syncope
Rationale: Vasovagal syncope commonly presents with pallor,
diaphoresis, nausea, hypotension, and transient loss of consciousness.
The initial management includes positioning the patient
appropriately, maintaining the airway, monitoring vital signs, and
identifying contributing factors such as anxiety or pain.
7.
4|Page
