ATI PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE EXAM 300 Questions with Correct Answers and Rationales

ATI PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE EXAM 300 Questions with Correct Answers and Rationales --- QUESTION 1 A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely to prevent digoxin toxicity? A. Serum potassium B. Serum sodium C. Serum calcium D. Serum magnesium Answer: A Rationale: Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity because potassium competes with digoxin for binding sites on the sodium-potassium pump. --- QUESTION 2 The nurse is teaching a client about warfarin therapy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? A. "I will avoid eating large amounts of green leafy vegetables." B. "I should report any unusual bleeding to my healthcare provider." C. "I can take aspirin for my headaches while on this medication." D. "I will keep my laboratory appointments to check my INR." Answer: C Rationale: Aspirin increases the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin and should be avoided unless specifically prescribed by the healthcare provider. --- QUESTION 3 A client prescribed lisinopril reports a persistent dry cough. What is the nurse's best response? A. "This is a common side effect that usually resolves on its own." B. "You should stop taking the medication immediately." C. "Take an over-the-counter cough suppressant to manage this symptom." D. "This indicates you are having an allergic reaction to the medication." Answer: A Rationale: A persistent dry cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors like lisinopril and may resolve, but should be reported to the healthcare provider. --- QUESTION 4 The nurse is administering furosemide to a client with pulmonary edema. Which assessment finding indicates the medication is having the desired effect? A. Increased blood pressure B. Decreased urine output C. Clearer breath sounds D. Increased heart rate Answer: C Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that reduces fluid volume, and clearer breath sounds indicate resolution of pulmonary congestion. --- QUESTION 5 A client with type 1 diabetes is prescribed regular insulin. When should the nurse administer this medication? A. 30 minutes before a meal B. With the meal C. Immediately after the meal D. At bedtime Answer: A Rationale: Regular insulin should be administered 30 minutes before meals to match the onset of action with postprandial glucose elevation. --- QUESTION 6 The nurse is caring for a client prescribed metoprolol. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider? A. Heart rate of 58 beats per minute B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg C. Respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute D. Apical pulse of 48 beats per minute Answer: D Rationale: A heart rate below 60 beats per minute with metoprolol, a beta-blocker, requires healthcare provider notification due to risk of bradycardia. --- QUESTION 7 A client is prescribed albuterol via metered-dose inhaler for asthma. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching? A. "Wait 1 minute between puffs if taking two puffs." B. "Use the inhaler immediately after eating." C. "Hold your breath for 10 seconds after inhaling." D. "Rinse your mouth before using the inhaler." Answer: C Rationale: Holding breath for 10 seconds after inhalation allows the medication to deposit in the airways for maximum effectiveness. --- QUESTION 8 The nurse is reviewing medications for a client with glaucoma. Which medication should the nurse question? A. Timolol eye drops B. Latanoprost eye drops C. Pilocarpine eye drops D. Atropine eye drops Answer: D Rationale: Atropine is a mydriatic that dilates the pupil and can increase intraocular pressure, making it contraindicated in glaucoma. --- QUESTION 9 A client is prescribed sertraline for depression. Which side effect should the nurse include in the discharge teaching? A. Hypertension B. Sexual dysfunction C. Weight gain D. Sedation Answer: B Rationale: Sexual dysfunction is a common side effect of SSRIs like sertraline and should be discussed with the healthcare provider if it occurs. --- QUESTION 10 The nurse is preparing to administer phenytoin to a client with seizures. Which route of administration is appropriate? A. Intramuscular B. Subcutaneous C. Intravenous D. Oral Answer: C Rationale: Phenytoin should be administered intravenously for rapid seizure control, never intramuscularly due to tissue irritation and erratic absorption. --- QUESTION 11 A client with hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide. Which dietary instruction should the nurse include? A. Increase potassium-rich foods B. Decrease calcium-rich foods C. Avoid foods high in sodium D. Increase fluid intake to 3 liters daily Answer: A Rationale: Thiazide diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide can cause hypokalemia, so increasing potassium-rich foods helps maintain normal potassium levels. --- QUESTION 12 The nurse is assessing a client receiving IV heparin. Which laboratory value should be monitored to evaluate therapeutic effectiveness? A. INR B. aPTT C. Platelet count D. PT Answer: B Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the primary laboratory test used to monitor heparin therapy and evaluate its anticoagulant effect. --- QUESTION 13 A client is prescribed morphine sulfate for severe pain. Which side effect requires the nurse to implement fall precautions? A. Nausea B. Constipation C. Dizziness D. Urinary retention Answer: C Rationale: Dizziness is a common side effect of opioids like morphine that increases fall risk, requiring the nurse to implement fall precautions. --- QUESTION 14 The nurse is teaching a client about proper use of sublingual nitroglycerin. Which instruction should the nurse include? A. "Swallow the tablet with water." B. "Place the tablet under your tongue." C. "Chew the tablet before swallowing." D. "Place the tablet between your cheek and gum." Answer: B Rationale: Sublingual nitroglycerin should be placed under the tongue for rapid absorption through the mucosal membrane. --- QUESTION 15 A client with Parkinson's disease is prescribed levodopa-carbidopa. Which food should the client avoid? A. Bananas B. High-protein meals C. Citrus fruits D. Whole grains Answer: B Rationale: High-protein meals can interfere with the absorption of levodopa because amino acids compete for transport across the blood-brain barrier. --- QUESTION 16 The nurse is caring for a client prescribed clopidogrel. Which assessment finding should be reported immediately? A. Bruising on the arms B. Petechiae on the chest C. Nosebleed that stops with pressure D. Gum bleeding after flossing Answer: B Rationale: Petechiae on the chest can indicate severe thrombocytopenia or bleeding complications requiring immediate healthcare provider notification. --- QUESTION 17 A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed methimazole. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the medication? A. "I can stop taking this when my thyroid levels are normal." B. "I will need to take this medication for about 6 to 12 weeks." C. "This medication will cure my hyperthyroidism permanently." D. "I should take this medication on an empty stomach." Answer: B Rationale: Methimazole typically takes 6 to 12 weeks to achieve full therapeutic effect in managing hyperthyroidism. --- QUESTION 18 The nurse is administering vancomycin IV to a client. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during infusion? A. Red man syndrome B. Gray baby syndrome C. Stevens-Johnson syndrome D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome Answer: A Rationale: Red man syndrome is a histamine-mediated reaction characterized by flushing and rash that can occur with rapid IV infusion of vancomycin. --- QUESTION 19 A client is prescribed amlodipine for hypertension. Which side effect should the nurse expect? A. Bradycardia B. Peripheral edema C. Hyperkalemia D. Bronchospasm Answer: B Rationale: Peripheral edema is a common side effect of calcium channel blockers like amlodipine due to vasodilation and fluid retention. --- QUESTION 20 The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client prescribed prednisone. Which instruction should the nurse include? A. "Take this medication with food." B. "Stop taking it if you feel better." C. "Take this medication at bedtime." D. "Avoid drinking fluids while taking this." Answer: A Rationale: Prednisone should be taken with food to reduce gastric irritation and minimize gastrointestinal side effects.