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PHARMACOLOGY MADE EASY 5.0 THE
ENDOCRINE SYSTEM Newest Exam Preparation
With Complete Questions And Correct Answers With
Rationales Already Graded A+Brand New Version!!
QUESTION 1
A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus is started on metformin. Which
of the following best describes the primary mechanism of action of this
drug?
A) Increases insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells
B) Decreases hepatic glucose production and increases peripheral
insulin sensitivity
C) Slows intestinal absorption of carbohydrates
D) Activates peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma
Answer: B
Explanation: Metformin is a biguanide that primarily works by reducing
hepatic gluconeogenesis and increasing glucose uptake in peripheral
tissues such as skeletal muscle. It does not directly stimulate insulin
release, which distinguishes it from sulfonylureas. Metformin also has
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beneficial effects on lipid profiles and does not cause weight gain or
hypoglycemia as monotherapy.
QUESTION 2
A 55-year-old female with type 2 diabetes is prescribed glipizide. Which
of the following adverse effects is most concerning with this
medication?
A) Weight loss
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Lactic acidosis
D) Gastrointestinal distress
Answer: B
Explanation: Glipizide is a sulfonylurea that stimulates pancreatic beta
cells to secrete insulin, which can lead to hypoglycemia, particularly in
elderly patients or those with renal impairment. Lactic acidosis is more
associated with metformin. Weight gain rather than loss is often seen
with sulfonylureas.
QUESTION 3
Which of the following drugs is a thiazolidinedione that acts as an
agonist at the peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma?
A) Pioglitazone
B) Repaglinide
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C) Sitagliptin
D) Acarbose
Answer: A
Explanation: Pioglitazone is a thiazolidinedione that improves insulin
sensitivity by binding to PPAR-gamma receptors, leading to increased
transcription of insulin-responsive genes. This results in enhanced
glucose uptake in adipose and muscle tissues. Fluid retention and heart
failure risk are notable adverse effects.
QUESTION 4
A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the hospital for
diabetic ketoacidosis. Which type of insulin should be administered
intravenously for rapid correction of hyperglycemia?
A) NPH insulin
B) Insulin glargine
C) Regular insulin
D) Insulin detemir
Answer: C
Explanation: Regular insulin is a short-acting insulin that can be
administered intravenously for rapid onset of action, making it the drug
of choice in diabetic ketoacidosis. NPH, glargine, and detemir are not
suitable for IV administration due to their prolonged duration of action
and formulation properties.
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QUESTION 5
Which of the following insulins has the longest duration of action and is
typically administered once daily?
A) Insulin lispro
B) Insulin aspart
C) Insulin glargine
D) Regular insulin
Answer: C
Explanation: Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin analog with a
duration of approximately 24 hours, allowing for once-daily dosing. It
has a relatively flat peakless profile, reducing the risk of hypoglycemia
compared to NPH insulin. Lispro and aspart are rapid-acting, while
regular insulin is short-acting.
QUESTION 6
A patient is taking exenatide for type 2 diabetes. Which adverse effect
is most commonly associated with this drug class?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Weight gain
C) Nausea and vomiting
D) Peripheral edema
PHARMACOLOGY MADE EASY 5.0 THE
ENDOCRINE SYSTEM Newest Exam Preparation
With Complete Questions And Correct Answers With
Rationales Already Graded A+Brand New Version!!
QUESTION 1
A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus is started on metformin. Which
of the following best describes the primary mechanism of action of this
drug?
A) Increases insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells
B) Decreases hepatic glucose production and increases peripheral
insulin sensitivity
C) Slows intestinal absorption of carbohydrates
D) Activates peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma
Answer: B
Explanation: Metformin is a biguanide that primarily works by reducing
hepatic gluconeogenesis and increasing glucose uptake in peripheral
tissues such as skeletal muscle. It does not directly stimulate insulin
release, which distinguishes it from sulfonylureas. Metformin also has
,2|Page
beneficial effects on lipid profiles and does not cause weight gain or
hypoglycemia as monotherapy.
QUESTION 2
A 55-year-old female with type 2 diabetes is prescribed glipizide. Which
of the following adverse effects is most concerning with this
medication?
A) Weight loss
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Lactic acidosis
D) Gastrointestinal distress
Answer: B
Explanation: Glipizide is a sulfonylurea that stimulates pancreatic beta
cells to secrete insulin, which can lead to hypoglycemia, particularly in
elderly patients or those with renal impairment. Lactic acidosis is more
associated with metformin. Weight gain rather than loss is often seen
with sulfonylureas.
QUESTION 3
Which of the following drugs is a thiazolidinedione that acts as an
agonist at the peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma?
A) Pioglitazone
B) Repaglinide
,3|Page
C) Sitagliptin
D) Acarbose
Answer: A
Explanation: Pioglitazone is a thiazolidinedione that improves insulin
sensitivity by binding to PPAR-gamma receptors, leading to increased
transcription of insulin-responsive genes. This results in enhanced
glucose uptake in adipose and muscle tissues. Fluid retention and heart
failure risk are notable adverse effects.
QUESTION 4
A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the hospital for
diabetic ketoacidosis. Which type of insulin should be administered
intravenously for rapid correction of hyperglycemia?
A) NPH insulin
B) Insulin glargine
C) Regular insulin
D) Insulin detemir
Answer: C
Explanation: Regular insulin is a short-acting insulin that can be
administered intravenously for rapid onset of action, making it the drug
of choice in diabetic ketoacidosis. NPH, glargine, and detemir are not
suitable for IV administration due to their prolonged duration of action
and formulation properties.
, 4|Page
QUESTION 5
Which of the following insulins has the longest duration of action and is
typically administered once daily?
A) Insulin lispro
B) Insulin aspart
C) Insulin glargine
D) Regular insulin
Answer: C
Explanation: Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin analog with a
duration of approximately 24 hours, allowing for once-daily dosing. It
has a relatively flat peakless profile, reducing the risk of hypoglycemia
compared to NPH insulin. Lispro and aspart are rapid-acting, while
regular insulin is short-acting.
QUESTION 6
A patient is taking exenatide for type 2 diabetes. Which adverse effect
is most commonly associated with this drug class?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Weight gain
C) Nausea and vomiting
D) Peripheral edema
