HESI PN Comprehensive Predictor — Exam Questions with
Correct Answers (VerifiedAnswers) Plus Rationales 2026 Q&A
1. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which
finding should the practical nurse report most promptly?
A. Urine output of 1,200 mL over 24 hours
B. Potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L
C. Blood pressure of 108/64 mm Hg
D. Weight loss of 1 lb overnight
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes urinary
sodium and potassium loss. A potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L
represents significant hypokalemia and increases the risk for
dysrhythmias, muscle weakness, and cardiac complications. The
other findings can occur with effective diuresis or may be
acceptable depending on the client’s baseline and overall
condition.
2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is
receiving oxygen at 2 L/min by nasal cannula. Which
assessment finding requires the most immediate intervention?
A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
B. Respiratory rate of 22/min
,C. Increasing somnolence and difficulty arousing
D. Barrel-shaped chest
Rationale: Increasing somnolence may indicate worsening
carbon dioxide retention and respiratory failure in a client with
severe COPD. A sudden change in level of consciousness is an
urgent deterioration requiring prompt assessment and
escalation of care.
3. The practical nurse is teaching a client who takes warfarin.
Which statement indicates correct understanding?
A. “I should avoid all foods that contain vitamin K.”
B. “I can double my next dose if I miss a dose.”
C. “I should keep my intake of vitamin K-containing foods
consistent.”
D. “I do not need blood tests once the dose is established.”
Rationale: Warfarin therapy is affected by vitamin K intake, so
consistency is more important than complete avoidance.
Abruptly increasing or decreasing vitamin K intake can alter
anticoagulant effectiveness. Clients should not independently
double doses after a missed dose, and regular INR monitoring is
necessary.
,4. A postoperative client suddenly develops shortness of
breath, chest pain, and tachycardia. Which action should the
practical nurse take first?
A. Encourage the client to ambulate
B. Place the client in a high-Fowler position and assess
oxygenation
C. Offer oral fluids
D. Apply a warm compress to the calf
Rationale: Sudden dyspnea, chest pain, and tachycardia after
surgery are concerning for pulmonary embolism. Positioning the
client upright can improve ventilation while immediate
assessment of oxygenation and respiratory status determines
severity. Ambulation and oral fluids are inappropriate during an
acute cardiopulmonary event.
5. Which finding is most consistent with hypoglycemia in a
client receiving insulin?
A. Warm, dry skin
B. Fruity breath odor
C. Tremors and diaphoresis
D. Deep, rapid respirations
Rationale: Hypoglycemia activates the sympathetic nervous
system, producing tremors, sweating, palpitations, anxiety, and
, hunger. Fruity breath and deep, rapid respirations are
associated with diabetic ketoacidosis. Rapid recognition is
important because severe hypoglycemia can progress to
seizures, coma, or death.
6. A client with a new prescription for lisinopril asks why blood
pressure and potassium levels are monitored. Which response
is best?
A. “The medication commonly causes potassium loss.”
B. “The medication can increase potassium and affect kidney
function.”
C. “The medication always causes severe dehydration.”
D. “The medication prevents all electrolyte changes.”
Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor. ACE inhibitors can
increase serum potassium, particularly in clients with renal
impairment or those taking other potassium-raising
medications. Kidney function is also monitored because
creatinine and renal function can change.
7. Which intervention is appropriate for a client with
Clostridioides difficile infection?
A. Use alcohol-based hand sanitizer as the only hand hygiene
method
Correct Answers (VerifiedAnswers) Plus Rationales 2026 Q&A
1. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which
finding should the practical nurse report most promptly?
A. Urine output of 1,200 mL over 24 hours
B. Potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L
C. Blood pressure of 108/64 mm Hg
D. Weight loss of 1 lb overnight
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes urinary
sodium and potassium loss. A potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L
represents significant hypokalemia and increases the risk for
dysrhythmias, muscle weakness, and cardiac complications. The
other findings can occur with effective diuresis or may be
acceptable depending on the client’s baseline and overall
condition.
2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is
receiving oxygen at 2 L/min by nasal cannula. Which
assessment finding requires the most immediate intervention?
A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
B. Respiratory rate of 22/min
,C. Increasing somnolence and difficulty arousing
D. Barrel-shaped chest
Rationale: Increasing somnolence may indicate worsening
carbon dioxide retention and respiratory failure in a client with
severe COPD. A sudden change in level of consciousness is an
urgent deterioration requiring prompt assessment and
escalation of care.
3. The practical nurse is teaching a client who takes warfarin.
Which statement indicates correct understanding?
A. “I should avoid all foods that contain vitamin K.”
B. “I can double my next dose if I miss a dose.”
C. “I should keep my intake of vitamin K-containing foods
consistent.”
D. “I do not need blood tests once the dose is established.”
Rationale: Warfarin therapy is affected by vitamin K intake, so
consistency is more important than complete avoidance.
Abruptly increasing or decreasing vitamin K intake can alter
anticoagulant effectiveness. Clients should not independently
double doses after a missed dose, and regular INR monitoring is
necessary.
,4. A postoperative client suddenly develops shortness of
breath, chest pain, and tachycardia. Which action should the
practical nurse take first?
A. Encourage the client to ambulate
B. Place the client in a high-Fowler position and assess
oxygenation
C. Offer oral fluids
D. Apply a warm compress to the calf
Rationale: Sudden dyspnea, chest pain, and tachycardia after
surgery are concerning for pulmonary embolism. Positioning the
client upright can improve ventilation while immediate
assessment of oxygenation and respiratory status determines
severity. Ambulation and oral fluids are inappropriate during an
acute cardiopulmonary event.
5. Which finding is most consistent with hypoglycemia in a
client receiving insulin?
A. Warm, dry skin
B. Fruity breath odor
C. Tremors and diaphoresis
D. Deep, rapid respirations
Rationale: Hypoglycemia activates the sympathetic nervous
system, producing tremors, sweating, palpitations, anxiety, and
, hunger. Fruity breath and deep, rapid respirations are
associated with diabetic ketoacidosis. Rapid recognition is
important because severe hypoglycemia can progress to
seizures, coma, or death.
6. A client with a new prescription for lisinopril asks why blood
pressure and potassium levels are monitored. Which response
is best?
A. “The medication commonly causes potassium loss.”
B. “The medication can increase potassium and affect kidney
function.”
C. “The medication always causes severe dehydration.”
D. “The medication prevents all electrolyte changes.”
Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor. ACE inhibitors can
increase serum potassium, particularly in clients with renal
impairment or those taking other potassium-raising
medications. Kidney function is also monitored because
creatinine and renal function can change.
7. Which intervention is appropriate for a client with
Clostridioides difficile infection?
A. Use alcohol-based hand sanitizer as the only hand hygiene
method
