Evolve Hesi Pharm Actual Complete Exam P a g e |
1
Evolve Hesi Pharm Actual Complete Exam
Version 1,2,3 And 4 2025 Test Bank with 350
QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS & RATIONALES
Questions and Revised Correct Answers, 100%
Guarantee Pass GRADED
Following heparin treatment for a pulmonary embolism, a client is being discharged with a prescription
for warfarin (Coumadin). In conducting discharge teaching, the nurse advises the client to have which
diagnostic test monitored regularly after discharge?
A. Perfusion scan.
B. Prothrombin Time (PT/INR).
C. Activated partial thromboplastin (APTT).
D. Serum Coumadin level (SCL). –
Correct Answer :B. Prothrombin Time (PT/INR).
P a g e 1 | 85
, Evolve Hesi Pharm Actual Complete Exam P a g e |
2
Rationale
When used for a client with pulmonary embolus, the therapeutic goal for warfarin therapy is a PT 1 to 2
times greater than the control, or an INR of 2 to 3
After abdominal surgery, a male client is prescribed low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). During
administration of the medication, the client asks the nurse why he is receiving this medication. Which
is the best response for the nurse to provide?
A. This medication is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot formation.
B. This medication enhances antibiotics to prevent infection.
C. This medication dissolves any clots that develop in the legs.
D. This abdominal injection assists in the healing of the abdominal wound. –
Correct Answer :A. This medication is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot formation.
Rationale
Unfractionated heparin or low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is an anticoagulant that inhibits
thrombin-mediated conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and is given prophylactically to prevent
postoperative venous thrombosis in order to prevent pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis
following knee and abdominal surgeries.
A category X drug is prescribed for a young adult female client. Which instruction is most important for
the nurse to teach this client?
A. Use a reliable form of birth control.
B. Avoid exposure to ultra violet light.
C. Refuse this medication if planning pregnancy.
D. Abstain from intercourse while on this drug. –
Correct Answer :A. Use a reliable form of birth control.
Rationale
P a g e 2 | 85
, Evolve Hesi Pharm Actual Complete Exam P a g e |
3
Drugs classified in the category X place a client who is in the first trimester of pregnancy at risk for
teratogenesis, so women in the childbearing years should be counseled to use a reliable form of birth
control during drug therapy. If the client is planning to become pregnant, she should be encouraged
to discuss plans for pregnancy with the healthcare provider, so a safer alternative prescription can be
provided if pregnancy occurs.
A client is receiving digoxin for the onset of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). Which laboratory
finding should the nurse identify that places this client at risk?
A. Hypokalemia.
B. Hyponatremia.
C. Hypercalcemia.
D. Low uric acid levels. –
Correct Answer :A. Hypokalemia.
Rationale
Hypokalemia affects myocardial contractility and places this client at greatest risk for dysrhythmias
that may be unresponsive to drug therapy. Although an imbalance of serum sodium and calcium can
effect cardiac rhythm, the greatest risk for the client receiving digoxin is low potassium.
A client with giardiasis is taking metronidazole (Flagyl) 2 grams PO. Which information should the
nurse include in the client's instruction?
A. Notify the clinic of any changes in the color of urine.
B. Avoid overexposure to the sun.
C. Stop the medication after the diarrhea resolves.
D. Take the medication with food. –
Correct Answer :D. Take the medication with food.
Rationale
Flagyl, an amoebicide and antibacterial agent, may cause gastric distress, so the client should be
instructed to take the medication on a full stomach. Urine may be red-brown or dark from Flagyl, but
this side effect is an expectant finding and not necessary to report tot he healthcare provider.
P a g e 3 | 85
, Evolve Hesi Pharm Actual Complete Exam P a g e |
4
Which nursing diagnosis is important to include in the plan of care for a client receiving the
angiotensin-2 receptor antagonist irbesartan (Avapro)?
A. Fluid volume deficit.
B. Risk for infection.
C. Risk for injury.
D. Impaired sleep patterns. –
Correct Answer :C. Risk for injury.
Rationale
Avapro is an antihypertensive agent, which acts by blocking vasoconstrictor effects at various
receptor sites. This can cause hypotension and dizziness, placing the client at high risk for injury.
A 43-year-old female client is receiving thyroid replacement hormone following a thyroidectomy. What
adverse effects associated with thyroid hormone toxicity should the nurse instruct the client to report
promptly to the healthcare provider?
A. Tinnitus and dizziness.
B. Tachycardia and chest pain.
C. Dry skin and intolerance to cold.
D. Weight gain and increased appetite. –
Correct Answer :B. Tachycardia and chest pain.
Rationale
Thyroid replacement hormone increases the metabolic rate of all tissues, so common signs and
symptoms of toxicity include tachycardia and chest pain
A client has a continuous IV infusion of dopamine (Intropin) and an IV of normal saline at 50 ml/hour.
The nurse notes that the client's urinary output has been 20 ml/hour for the last two hours. Which
intervention should the nurse initiate?
A. Stop the infusion of dopamine.
P a g e 4 | 85
1
Evolve Hesi Pharm Actual Complete Exam
Version 1,2,3 And 4 2025 Test Bank with 350
QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS & RATIONALES
Questions and Revised Correct Answers, 100%
Guarantee Pass GRADED
Following heparin treatment for a pulmonary embolism, a client is being discharged with a prescription
for warfarin (Coumadin). In conducting discharge teaching, the nurse advises the client to have which
diagnostic test monitored regularly after discharge?
A. Perfusion scan.
B. Prothrombin Time (PT/INR).
C. Activated partial thromboplastin (APTT).
D. Serum Coumadin level (SCL). –
Correct Answer :B. Prothrombin Time (PT/INR).
P a g e 1 | 85
, Evolve Hesi Pharm Actual Complete Exam P a g e |
2
Rationale
When used for a client with pulmonary embolus, the therapeutic goal for warfarin therapy is a PT 1 to 2
times greater than the control, or an INR of 2 to 3
After abdominal surgery, a male client is prescribed low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). During
administration of the medication, the client asks the nurse why he is receiving this medication. Which
is the best response for the nurse to provide?
A. This medication is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot formation.
B. This medication enhances antibiotics to prevent infection.
C. This medication dissolves any clots that develop in the legs.
D. This abdominal injection assists in the healing of the abdominal wound. –
Correct Answer :A. This medication is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot formation.
Rationale
Unfractionated heparin or low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is an anticoagulant that inhibits
thrombin-mediated conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and is given prophylactically to prevent
postoperative venous thrombosis in order to prevent pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis
following knee and abdominal surgeries.
A category X drug is prescribed for a young adult female client. Which instruction is most important for
the nurse to teach this client?
A. Use a reliable form of birth control.
B. Avoid exposure to ultra violet light.
C. Refuse this medication if planning pregnancy.
D. Abstain from intercourse while on this drug. –
Correct Answer :A. Use a reliable form of birth control.
Rationale
P a g e 2 | 85
, Evolve Hesi Pharm Actual Complete Exam P a g e |
3
Drugs classified in the category X place a client who is in the first trimester of pregnancy at risk for
teratogenesis, so women in the childbearing years should be counseled to use a reliable form of birth
control during drug therapy. If the client is planning to become pregnant, she should be encouraged
to discuss plans for pregnancy with the healthcare provider, so a safer alternative prescription can be
provided if pregnancy occurs.
A client is receiving digoxin for the onset of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). Which laboratory
finding should the nurse identify that places this client at risk?
A. Hypokalemia.
B. Hyponatremia.
C. Hypercalcemia.
D. Low uric acid levels. –
Correct Answer :A. Hypokalemia.
Rationale
Hypokalemia affects myocardial contractility and places this client at greatest risk for dysrhythmias
that may be unresponsive to drug therapy. Although an imbalance of serum sodium and calcium can
effect cardiac rhythm, the greatest risk for the client receiving digoxin is low potassium.
A client with giardiasis is taking metronidazole (Flagyl) 2 grams PO. Which information should the
nurse include in the client's instruction?
A. Notify the clinic of any changes in the color of urine.
B. Avoid overexposure to the sun.
C. Stop the medication after the diarrhea resolves.
D. Take the medication with food. –
Correct Answer :D. Take the medication with food.
Rationale
Flagyl, an amoebicide and antibacterial agent, may cause gastric distress, so the client should be
instructed to take the medication on a full stomach. Urine may be red-brown or dark from Flagyl, but
this side effect is an expectant finding and not necessary to report tot he healthcare provider.
P a g e 3 | 85
, Evolve Hesi Pharm Actual Complete Exam P a g e |
4
Which nursing diagnosis is important to include in the plan of care for a client receiving the
angiotensin-2 receptor antagonist irbesartan (Avapro)?
A. Fluid volume deficit.
B. Risk for infection.
C. Risk for injury.
D. Impaired sleep patterns. –
Correct Answer :C. Risk for injury.
Rationale
Avapro is an antihypertensive agent, which acts by blocking vasoconstrictor effects at various
receptor sites. This can cause hypotension and dizziness, placing the client at high risk for injury.
A 43-year-old female client is receiving thyroid replacement hormone following a thyroidectomy. What
adverse effects associated with thyroid hormone toxicity should the nurse instruct the client to report
promptly to the healthcare provider?
A. Tinnitus and dizziness.
B. Tachycardia and chest pain.
C. Dry skin and intolerance to cold.
D. Weight gain and increased appetite. –
Correct Answer :B. Tachycardia and chest pain.
Rationale
Thyroid replacement hormone increases the metabolic rate of all tissues, so common signs and
symptoms of toxicity include tachycardia and chest pain
A client has a continuous IV infusion of dopamine (Intropin) and an IV of normal saline at 50 ml/hour.
The nurse notes that the client's urinary output has been 20 ml/hour for the last two hours. Which
intervention should the nurse initiate?
A. Stop the infusion of dopamine.
P a g e 4 | 85
