AS 121 Exam 6 ACTUAL QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT ANSWERS
What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace? - CORRECT
ANSWER Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an
encoding altimeter.
(Refer to Figure 26.) (Refer to area 2.) What is the recommended communication procedure when
inbound to land at Cooperstown Airport? - CORRECT ANSWER Broadcast intentions when
10 miles out on the CTAF/MULTICOM frequency, 122.9 MHz.
With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to,
but does not include, - CORRECT ANSWER 18,000 feet MSL.
(Refer to Figure 24.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Majors Airport (area 1) to
Winnsboro Airport (area 2). The wind is from 340° at 12 knots, the true airspeed is 136 knots, and the
magnetic variation is 6° 30'E. - CORRECT ANSWER 091°.
(Refer to Figure 25.) (Refer to area 4.) The floor of Class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport (T67)
north-northwest of Fort Worth Meacham Field is - CORRECT ANSWER 4,000 feet MSL
Refer to Figure 71.) (Refer to area 1.) Dubey Airport is - CORRECT ANSWER a privately
owned airport restricted to use.
(Refer to Figure 21.) (Refer to area 3.) What type military flight operations should a pilot expect along
IR 644? - CORRECT ANSWER IFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess
of 250 knots.
(Refer to Figure 21.) (Refer to area 3.) Which airport is located at approximately 47°21'N latitude and
101°01'W longitude? - CORRECT ANSWER Washburn.
(Refer to Figure 22.) (Refer to area 3.) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Shoshone
County Airport - CORRECT ANSWER 47°33'N - 116°11'W.
, How should a VFR flight plan be closed at the completion of the flight at a controlled airport? -
CORRECT ANSWER The pilot must close the flight plan with the nearest FSS or other FAA
facility upon landing.
(Refer to Figure 26.) (Refer to area 4.) The CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Jamestown Airport is -
CORRECT ANSWER 123.0 MHz.
(Refer to Figure 26.) The Devils Lake East MOA (area 1) is a - CORRECT ANSWER military
operations area
(Refer to Figure 24.) On what course should the VOR receiver (OBS) be set in order to navigate direct
from Majors Airport (area 1) to Quitman VORTAC (area 2)? - CORRECT ANSWER 101°.
(Refer to Figure 70.) An aircraft takes off from Gnoss Airport (area 4) and flies southeast 25.4 NM to
Buchanan Airport. What maximum elevation figure would assure obstruction clearance during the
flight? - CORRECT ANSWER 3,200 feet MSL.
(Refer to Figure 24.) Which public use airports depicted are indicated as having fuel? - CORRECT
ANSWER Rockwall (area 1) and Sulphur Springs (area 5).
(Refer to Figure 25.) What is the base of Class B airspace at Lakeview (30F) Airport (area 2)? -
CORRECT ANSWER 3,000
(Refer to Figure 51A.) What information should be entered into item 16, "Destination Aerodrome,"
for a VFR day flight? - CORRECT ANSWER The destination airport identifier code.
(Refer to Figure 20.) (Refer to area 3.) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Currituck
County Airport. - CORRECT ANSWER 36°24'N - 76°01'W
(Refer to Figure 24.) (Refer to area 1.) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the
obstacle on the northeast side of Airpark East Airport by 500 feet? - CORRECT ANSWER
1,273 feet MSL
(Refer to Figure 23, Legend 1.) (Refer to area 3.) For information about glider operations at Ridgeland
Airport, refer to - CORRECT ANSWER the Chart Supplement
AND CORRECT ANSWERS
What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace? - CORRECT
ANSWER Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an
encoding altimeter.
(Refer to Figure 26.) (Refer to area 2.) What is the recommended communication procedure when
inbound to land at Cooperstown Airport? - CORRECT ANSWER Broadcast intentions when
10 miles out on the CTAF/MULTICOM frequency, 122.9 MHz.
With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to,
but does not include, - CORRECT ANSWER 18,000 feet MSL.
(Refer to Figure 24.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Majors Airport (area 1) to
Winnsboro Airport (area 2). The wind is from 340° at 12 knots, the true airspeed is 136 knots, and the
magnetic variation is 6° 30'E. - CORRECT ANSWER 091°.
(Refer to Figure 25.) (Refer to area 4.) The floor of Class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport (T67)
north-northwest of Fort Worth Meacham Field is - CORRECT ANSWER 4,000 feet MSL
Refer to Figure 71.) (Refer to area 1.) Dubey Airport is - CORRECT ANSWER a privately
owned airport restricted to use.
(Refer to Figure 21.) (Refer to area 3.) What type military flight operations should a pilot expect along
IR 644? - CORRECT ANSWER IFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess
of 250 knots.
(Refer to Figure 21.) (Refer to area 3.) Which airport is located at approximately 47°21'N latitude and
101°01'W longitude? - CORRECT ANSWER Washburn.
(Refer to Figure 22.) (Refer to area 3.) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Shoshone
County Airport - CORRECT ANSWER 47°33'N - 116°11'W.
, How should a VFR flight plan be closed at the completion of the flight at a controlled airport? -
CORRECT ANSWER The pilot must close the flight plan with the nearest FSS or other FAA
facility upon landing.
(Refer to Figure 26.) (Refer to area 4.) The CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Jamestown Airport is -
CORRECT ANSWER 123.0 MHz.
(Refer to Figure 26.) The Devils Lake East MOA (area 1) is a - CORRECT ANSWER military
operations area
(Refer to Figure 24.) On what course should the VOR receiver (OBS) be set in order to navigate direct
from Majors Airport (area 1) to Quitman VORTAC (area 2)? - CORRECT ANSWER 101°.
(Refer to Figure 70.) An aircraft takes off from Gnoss Airport (area 4) and flies southeast 25.4 NM to
Buchanan Airport. What maximum elevation figure would assure obstruction clearance during the
flight? - CORRECT ANSWER 3,200 feet MSL.
(Refer to Figure 24.) Which public use airports depicted are indicated as having fuel? - CORRECT
ANSWER Rockwall (area 1) and Sulphur Springs (area 5).
(Refer to Figure 25.) What is the base of Class B airspace at Lakeview (30F) Airport (area 2)? -
CORRECT ANSWER 3,000
(Refer to Figure 51A.) What information should be entered into item 16, "Destination Aerodrome,"
for a VFR day flight? - CORRECT ANSWER The destination airport identifier code.
(Refer to Figure 20.) (Refer to area 3.) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Currituck
County Airport. - CORRECT ANSWER 36°24'N - 76°01'W
(Refer to Figure 24.) (Refer to area 1.) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the
obstacle on the northeast side of Airpark East Airport by 500 feet? - CORRECT ANSWER
1,273 feet MSL
(Refer to Figure 23, Legend 1.) (Refer to area 3.) For information about glider operations at Ridgeland
Airport, refer to - CORRECT ANSWER the Chart Supplement
