Advanced Medical Life Support
Practice Exam Questions And Correct
Answers (Verified Answers) Plus
Rationales 2026 Q&A | Instant
Download Pdf
1.
A 58-year-old patient presents with acute dyspnea, diaphoresis, and
substernal chest pressure. His blood pressure is 82/54 mmHg, heart rate
is 118/min, and oxygen saturation is 91%. Which finding most strongly
suggests cardiogenic shock?
A. Warm extremities with bounding pulses
B. Bradycardia with hypertension
C. Cool, clammy skin with weak peripheral pulses
D. Isolated fever with tachycardia
Answer: C. Cool, clammy skin with weak peripheral pulses
Rationale: Cardiogenic shock results from inadequate cardiac
output, commonly producing hypotension, peripheral
vasoconstriction, cool clammy skin, weak pulses, altered mental
status, and evidence of poor organ perfusion.
2.
Which intervention should be prioritized for an unresponsive adult who
is not breathing normally?
,A. Obtain a complete medical history
B. Assess the airway and begin appropriate resuscitation
C. Obtain a 12-lead ECG before intervention
D. Administer oral medication
Answer: B. Assess the airway and begin appropriate resuscitation
Rationale: Immediate assessment and management of airway,
breathing, and circulation take priority in an unresponsive patient.
Delaying resuscitative care for diagnostic information can worsen
outcome.
3.
A patient with severe asthma becomes increasingly fatigued and
develops a markedly diminished breath sound bilaterally. Which finding
is most concerning?
A. Mild expiratory wheezing
B. Respiratory rate of 22/min
C. Ability to speak full sentences
D. A silent chest with worsening respiratory effort
Answer: D. A silent chest with worsening respiratory effort
Rationale: A silent chest in severe asthma can indicate critically
reduced airflow and impending respiratory failure. Wheezing may
disappear as airflow becomes insufficient to generate audible
wheezing.
4.
Which acid-base abnormality is most likely during early
hyperventilation caused by a severe anxiety episode?
,A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Respiratory acidosis
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
Answer: C. Respiratory alkalosis
Rationale: Hyperventilation causes excessive carbon dioxide
elimination, reducing PaCO₂ and producing respiratory alkalosis.
5.
A patient with suspected sepsis has altered mental status, tachycardia,
hypotension, and elevated lactate. What is the primary concern?
A. Isolated hypertension
B. Tissue hypoperfusion and organ dysfunction
C. Hyperventilation without physiologic consequences
D. Mild dehydration only
Answer: B. Tissue hypoperfusion and organ dysfunction
Rationale: Sepsis can cause profound circulatory and cellular
dysfunction. Hypoperfusion may lead to elevated lactate,
hypotension, altered mentation, renal injury, and multiple-organ
dysfunction.
6.
Which patient is at greatest risk for an acute pulmonary embolism?
A. Patient with controlled seasonal allergies
B. Patient with uncomplicated tension headache
C. Patient with recent major surgery and prolonged immobility
D. Patient with mild gastroesophageal reflux
, Answer: C. Patient with recent major surgery and prolonged
immobility
Rationale: Major surgery and immobility increase venous stasis and
thrombotic risk. A deep venous thrombosis can embolize to the
pulmonary circulation.
7.
Which presentation is most characteristic of tension pneumothorax?
A. Bilateral crackles and peripheral edema
B. Severe respiratory distress with hypotension and unilateral
absent breath sounds
C. Slow respiratory rate with hypertension
D. Productive cough with bilateral wheezing
Answer: B. Severe respiratory distress with hypotension and
unilateral absent breath sounds
Rationale: Tension pneumothorax causes progressive intrathoracic
pressure, impaired venous return, reduced cardiac output,
respiratory distress, and often unilateral markedly decreased or
absent breath sounds.
8.
A patient develops facial droop, arm weakness, and aphasia 45 minutes
before arrival. What information is particularly important?
A. Last meal eaten
B. Last known well time
C. Childhood vaccination history
D. Most recent dental examination
Answer: B. Last known well time
Practice Exam Questions And Correct
Answers (Verified Answers) Plus
Rationales 2026 Q&A | Instant
Download Pdf
1.
A 58-year-old patient presents with acute dyspnea, diaphoresis, and
substernal chest pressure. His blood pressure is 82/54 mmHg, heart rate
is 118/min, and oxygen saturation is 91%. Which finding most strongly
suggests cardiogenic shock?
A. Warm extremities with bounding pulses
B. Bradycardia with hypertension
C. Cool, clammy skin with weak peripheral pulses
D. Isolated fever with tachycardia
Answer: C. Cool, clammy skin with weak peripheral pulses
Rationale: Cardiogenic shock results from inadequate cardiac
output, commonly producing hypotension, peripheral
vasoconstriction, cool clammy skin, weak pulses, altered mental
status, and evidence of poor organ perfusion.
2.
Which intervention should be prioritized for an unresponsive adult who
is not breathing normally?
,A. Obtain a complete medical history
B. Assess the airway and begin appropriate resuscitation
C. Obtain a 12-lead ECG before intervention
D. Administer oral medication
Answer: B. Assess the airway and begin appropriate resuscitation
Rationale: Immediate assessment and management of airway,
breathing, and circulation take priority in an unresponsive patient.
Delaying resuscitative care for diagnostic information can worsen
outcome.
3.
A patient with severe asthma becomes increasingly fatigued and
develops a markedly diminished breath sound bilaterally. Which finding
is most concerning?
A. Mild expiratory wheezing
B. Respiratory rate of 22/min
C. Ability to speak full sentences
D. A silent chest with worsening respiratory effort
Answer: D. A silent chest with worsening respiratory effort
Rationale: A silent chest in severe asthma can indicate critically
reduced airflow and impending respiratory failure. Wheezing may
disappear as airflow becomes insufficient to generate audible
wheezing.
4.
Which acid-base abnormality is most likely during early
hyperventilation caused by a severe anxiety episode?
,A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Respiratory acidosis
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
Answer: C. Respiratory alkalosis
Rationale: Hyperventilation causes excessive carbon dioxide
elimination, reducing PaCO₂ and producing respiratory alkalosis.
5.
A patient with suspected sepsis has altered mental status, tachycardia,
hypotension, and elevated lactate. What is the primary concern?
A. Isolated hypertension
B. Tissue hypoperfusion and organ dysfunction
C. Hyperventilation without physiologic consequences
D. Mild dehydration only
Answer: B. Tissue hypoperfusion and organ dysfunction
Rationale: Sepsis can cause profound circulatory and cellular
dysfunction. Hypoperfusion may lead to elevated lactate,
hypotension, altered mentation, renal injury, and multiple-organ
dysfunction.
6.
Which patient is at greatest risk for an acute pulmonary embolism?
A. Patient with controlled seasonal allergies
B. Patient with uncomplicated tension headache
C. Patient with recent major surgery and prolonged immobility
D. Patient with mild gastroesophageal reflux
, Answer: C. Patient with recent major surgery and prolonged
immobility
Rationale: Major surgery and immobility increase venous stasis and
thrombotic risk. A deep venous thrombosis can embolize to the
pulmonary circulation.
7.
Which presentation is most characteristic of tension pneumothorax?
A. Bilateral crackles and peripheral edema
B. Severe respiratory distress with hypotension and unilateral
absent breath sounds
C. Slow respiratory rate with hypertension
D. Productive cough with bilateral wheezing
Answer: B. Severe respiratory distress with hypotension and
unilateral absent breath sounds
Rationale: Tension pneumothorax causes progressive intrathoracic
pressure, impaired venous return, reduced cardiac output,
respiratory distress, and often unilateral markedly decreased or
absent breath sounds.
8.
A patient develops facial droop, arm weakness, and aphasia 45 minutes
before arrival. What information is particularly important?
A. Last meal eaten
B. Last known well time
C. Childhood vaccination history
D. Most recent dental examination
Answer: B. Last known well time
