PHARMACOLOGY V1 EXAM
(3 Set Exams)
Nightingale College
Actual Qs & Verified Ans to Pass the Exam
This Hesi test contains:
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❖ (3 Set Exams)
❖ Format Set of Multiple-choice
❖ questions with incorporating Next Generation NCLEX
(NGN) and Case scenarios questions
❖ Expert-Verified Explanations & Solutions
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,Table of Contents
BSN 315 HESI Pharmacology V1 Exam 1 ........................ 2
BSN 315 HESI Pharmacology V1 Exam 2 ...................... 83
BSN 315 HESI Pharmacology V1 Exam 3 .................... 121
BSN 315 HESI Pharmacology V1 Exam 1
### 1. The nurse provides discharge instructions to a client who has
been prescribed gabapentin 300 mg by mouth three times a day for
postherpetic neuralgia. Which symptoms should the nurse tell the client
to report to the healthcare provider?
Answer Choices:
A. Sexual dysfunction
B. Gastric irritation
C. Rapid weight gain
D. Photosensitivity
Correct Answer: B. Gastric irritation
Expert Rationale:
,Gastric irritation, though less common than neurologic side effects, can signal
intolerance or predispose to GI bleeding, especially in older adults or those on
other GI-risk medications. The nurse should instruct the client to report
persistent GI symptoms promptly.
### 2. A client with chronic lower back pain has been taking NSAID
ibuprofen orally twice a day for several months. Which assessment is
most important for the nurse to complete?
Answer Choices:
A. Assess back pain using numeric scale
B. Palpate volume of pedal pulses
C. Determine presence of abdominal pain
D. Evaluate ongoing sleep patterns
Correct Answer: C. Determine presence of abdominal pain
Expert Rationale:
Given chronic NSAID use, the most critical and potentially life-threatening side
effect is GI ulcer/bleed, often presenting as abdominal pain. Early detection
may prevent major complications such as perforation and hemorrhage.
### 3. NGN - Complex Case
Patient Data:
History: 36-year-old female, moderate persistent asthma. Rx:
fluticasone/salmeterol 250/50 mcg & albuterol 2 puffs q4-6h PRN.
,Current status: Increased asthma symptoms over a week, FEV1 60-65%
despite frequent albuterol, dizziness, lightheadedness, palpitations. 99%
O₂ sat. No wheezes auscultated.
Answer Choices:
Potential Condition:
- Methemoglobinemia
Actions to Take:
- 1. Draw blood for a complete blood count
- 2. Administer methylene blue
Parameters to Monitor:
- 1. Methemoglobin level
- 2. Heart rate and rhythm
NGN Context:
The client presents with unexplained symptoms (dizziness, palpitations)
despite adequate O₂ sat. Changes in O₂ sat, abnormal response to beta-
agonists, and limited physical findings prompt consideration of atypical causes
(e.g., methemoglobinemia).
Expert Rationale:
Asthma should respond to albuterol; if not, and symptoms such as pallor,
dizziness, and palpitations occur, methemoglobinemia (seen with certain drug
exposures) can impair oxygen delivery despite normal O₂ readings. Checking
,methemoglobin and CBC, with treatment and cardiac monitoring, is essential
for safety.
### 4. A client taking atorvastatin develops an increased serum creatine
phosphokinase (CK) level. The nurse should assess the client for the
onset of which problem?
Answer Choices:
A. Muscle tenderness.
B. Nausea and vomiting.
C. Excessive bruising.
D. Peripheral edema.
Correct Answer: A. Muscle tenderness.
Expert Rationale:
An elevated CK in a client on a statin strongly suggests muscle injury. Statins
can precipitate myopathy, which presents as muscle pain or tenderness and, in
severe cases, rhabdomyolysis. The nurse should specifically assess for muscle
symptoms to catch complications early and ensure prompt management.
### 5. An increase in which serum laboratory value indicates to the
nurse that a prescription for atorvastatin is having the desired effect for
a client at risk for coronary artery disease?
Answer Choices:
A. LDL (Low-density lipoprotein)
,B. Triglycerides (Type of fat)
C. HDL (High-density lipoprotein)
D. VLDL (Very low-density lipoprotein)
Correct Answer: C. HDL (High-density lipoprotein)
Expert Rationale:
The desired effect of statin therapy is to lower LDL and triglycerides, but an
especially beneficial effect is to *increase* levels of HDL, which has a
protective effect against coronary artery disease. Monitoring for increased
HDL confirms positive medication effects.
### 6. The nurse administers risedronate to a client with osteoporosis at
0700. The client asks for a glass of milk to drink with the medication.
Which action should the nurse take?
Answer Choices:
A. Instruct the client that it is necessary to take nothing but water with the
medication.
B. Assign a UAP to bring a glass of low-fat milk.
C. Withhold the medication until breakfast is available.
D. Consult a pharmacist about scheduling after breakfast.
Correct Answer: A. Instruct the client that it is necessary to take nothing but
water with the medication.
Expert Rationale:
,Food, calcium, and even juices/supplements bind risedronate, drastically
decreasing bioavailability. For optimal absorption and to avoid esophageal
irritation, it is taken with a full glass of water, with nothing but water for at
least 30 minutes post-dose.
### 7. Which action should the nurse implement to assess the
effectiveness of the calcium channel blocker amlodipine?
Answer Choices:
A. Note the client's serum calcium levels
B. Monitor the client's serum electrolytes
C. Review the client's intake and output
D. Measure the client's blood pressure
Correct Answer: D. Measure the client's blood pressure
Expert Rationale:
Its main therapeutic goal is blood pressure control; thus, comparing ongoing
BPs to baseline is the most direct way to determine medication efficacy.
Electrolytes/calcium are not directly affected.
### 8. A client is receiving tamsulosin, an alpha adrenergic-blocking
agent, for management of urinary retention due to BPH. Which
instruction is most important for the nurse to provide?
Answer Choices:
,A. Use a twice a week dosing schedule
B. Stand and sit up slowly
C. Take the medication early in the day
D. Reduce daily fluid intake
Correct Answer: B. Stand and sit up slowly
Expert Rationale:
To prevent falls and syncope, patients must be educated about changing
positions slowly to accommodate decreased vascular resistance and drop in
blood pressure.
### 9. A client with chemotherapy-induced nausea receives a
prescription for metoclopramide. Which adverse effect is most
important for the nurse to report?
Answer Choices:
A. Nausea
B. Involuntary movements
C. Diarrhea
D. Unusual irritability
Correct Answer: B. Involuntary movements
Expert Rationale:
New or involuntary muscle movements may signal serious and sometimes
irreversible neurological toxicity. Early detection allows discontinuation and
intervention.
, ---
### 10. A client is receiving orlistat as part of a weight management
program. Which ongoing assessment should be included in the plan of
care to determine the effectiveness of the medication?
Answer Choices:
A. Body mass index
B. Depression screening
C. Daily calorie count
D. Serum protein levels
Correct Answer: A. Body mass index
Expert Rationale:
BMI offers a standardized, serial measure to gauge weight loss and drug
efficacy over time. Other options are indirect or less clinically relevant.
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### 11. Before administering the initial dose of sumatriptan succinate to
a client with a migraine headache, it is most important to determine if
the client's history includes which problem?
Answer Choices: