EEG Board Exam ACTUAL EXAM
2026/2027 | Complete Exam-Style
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Section 1: Neuroanatomy & Neurophysiology
Q1: A patient presents with expressive aphasia and right-sided hemiparesis. Which cerebral artery
territory is most likely affected?
A. Posterior cerebral artery
B. Middle cerebral artery
C. Anterior cerebral artery
D. Vertebrobasilar artery
B. Middle cerebral artery [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the middle cerebral artery supplies the lateral surface of the
cerebral hemisphere, including Broca's area (dominant hemisphere, motor speech), the motor cortex for
the face and upper extremity, and the sensory cortex; occlusion causes the classic presentation of
expressive aphasia, contralateral hemiparesis (face and arm worse than leg), and hemisensory loss.
Remember that when performing EEG, understanding vascular anatomy helps localize abnormalities and
correlate EEG findings with clinical presentation.
Q2: In the thalamocortical circuit responsible for generating the alpha rhythm, which thalamic nucleus
serves as the primary pacemaker?
A. Ventral posterolateral nucleus
,B. Pulvinar nucleus
C. Lateral geniculate nucleus
D. Reticular nucleus
D. Reticular nucleus [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the thalamic reticular nucleus acts as the primary pacemaker
for the alpha rhythm — it receives collateral inputs from thalamocortical and corticothalamic fibers and
generates rhythmic burst-firing at 8–13 Hz through GABAergic inhibitory projections to other thalamic
nuclei; this rhythmic inhibition synchronizes thalamocortical relay neurons, producing the scalp-
recorded alpha rhythm that is most prominent over the occipital regions during relaxed wakefulness
with eyes closed. This aligns with the ABRET standard that a technologist should be able to identify
common EEG patterns and understand their physiological generators.
Q3: A full-term newborn EEG shows predominantly delta activity with some theta, absent posterior
dominant rhythm, and trace alternant during quiet sleep. Which statement about neonatal EEG
maturation is most accurate?
A. This pattern is abnormal and indicates severe encephalopathy.
B. This pattern is consistent with normal EEG maturation for a full-term infant, with gradual emergence
of faster frequencies over the first few months of life.
C. This pattern indicates premature birth at approximately 32 weeks gestation.
D. This pattern suggests hypoxic-ischemic injury.
B. This pattern is consistent with normal EEG maturation for a full-term infant, with gradual
emergence of faster frequencies over the first few months of life. [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the neonatal EEG undergoes predictable maturational
changes — at term, the EEG is dominated by delta and theta activity, lacks a well-defined posterior
dominant rhythm, and shows trace alternant (periodic bursts of mixed frequencies alternating with
relative quiescence) during quiet sleep; the posterior dominant rhythm emerges around 3–4 months of
age, and faster frequencies develop progressively through infancy and childhood. Remember that when
performing pediatric EEG, knowledge of age-appropriate patterns is essential to avoid misinterpreting
normal immaturity as abnormality.
,Q4: The primary generator of scalp-recorded EEG activity is best described as:
A. Action potentials traveling along myelinated axons in the white matter.
B. Synchronous postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs and IPSPs) in the dendrites of cortical pyramidal neurons
arranged perpendicular to the cortical surface.
C. Synaptic transmission at the neuromuscular junction.
D. Action potentials in cranial nerves.
B. Synchronous postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs and IPSPs) in the dendrites of cortical pyramidal
neurons arranged perpendicular to the cortical surface. [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because scalp EEG records the summation of synchronized
postsynaptic potentials in cortical pyramidal neurons — these neurons are oriented perpendicular to the
cortical surface, and their dendritic fields generate dipole electrical fields that are detectable at the scalp
when large populations fire synchronously; action potentials are too brief and asynchronous to
contribute significantly to scalp EEG, which is why EEG reflects synaptic activity rather than neuronal
firing itself. This aligns with the ABRET standard that a technologist should be able to identify common
EEG patterns and understand their physiological generators.
Q5: During REM sleep, which physiological change occurs that distinguishes it from NREM sleep?
A. Decreased cerebral blood flow and metabolic rate.
B. Synchronized slow-wave activity in the frontal regions.
C. Desynchronized low-voltage mixed-frequency EEG resembling wakefulness, with muscle atonia and
rapid eye movements.
D. Presence of sleep spindles and K-complexes.
C. Desynchronized low-voltage mixed-frequency EEG resembling wakefulness, with muscle atonia and
rapid eye movements. [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because REM sleep is characterized by a unique constellation of
features — the EEG shows desynchronized low-voltage mixed-frequency activity that resembles
wakefulness (hence "paradoxical sleep"), there is complete muscle atonia (mediated by pontine-
geniculate-occipital pathways) to prevent acting out dreams, and bursts of rapid eye movements occur;
this contrasts with NREM sleep, which shows synchronized slow waves, sleep spindles, and K-complexes.
, Remember that when performing sleep-deprived EEGs or polysomnography, recognizing sleep stages is
essential for accurate interpretation.
Q6: A patient has a lesion in the left occipital lobe. Which visual field deficit would be expected?
A. Right homonymous hemianopia
B. Left homonymous hemianopia
C. Bitemporal hemianopia
D. Central scotoma
A. Right homonymous hemianopia [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the visual pathway is organized such that the left occipital
cortex processes information from the right visual field of both eyes — lesions posterior to the optic
chiasm (in the optic tract, lateral geniculate body, optic radiations, or occipital cortex) cause
contralateral homonymous hemianopia; a left occipital lesion therefore causes right homonymous
hemianopia, while optic chiasm lesions cause bitemporal hemianopia. This aligns with the ABRET
standard that a technologist should be able to identify common EEG patterns and understand their
physiological generators.
Q7: The reticular activating system (RAS) is located primarily in which brainstem region?
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Pons and midbrain
C. Cerebellum
D. Hypothalamus
B. Pons and midbrain [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the reticular activating system is a diffuse network of
neurons located in the core of the brainstem, extending from the upper pons through the midbrain to
the diencephalon — it receives collaterals from all sensory modalities and projects widely to the
thalamus and cerebral cortex, maintaining wakefulness and arousal; lesions of the RAS cause coma,
while overstimulation (as in anxiety or certain drug effects) produces heightened arousal and
2026/2027 | Complete Exam-Style
Questions | Verified Q&A | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: Neuroanatomy & Neurophysiology
Q1: A patient presents with expressive aphasia and right-sided hemiparesis. Which cerebral artery
territory is most likely affected?
A. Posterior cerebral artery
B. Middle cerebral artery
C. Anterior cerebral artery
D. Vertebrobasilar artery
B. Middle cerebral artery [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the middle cerebral artery supplies the lateral surface of the
cerebral hemisphere, including Broca's area (dominant hemisphere, motor speech), the motor cortex for
the face and upper extremity, and the sensory cortex; occlusion causes the classic presentation of
expressive aphasia, contralateral hemiparesis (face and arm worse than leg), and hemisensory loss.
Remember that when performing EEG, understanding vascular anatomy helps localize abnormalities and
correlate EEG findings with clinical presentation.
Q2: In the thalamocortical circuit responsible for generating the alpha rhythm, which thalamic nucleus
serves as the primary pacemaker?
A. Ventral posterolateral nucleus
,B. Pulvinar nucleus
C. Lateral geniculate nucleus
D. Reticular nucleus
D. Reticular nucleus [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the thalamic reticular nucleus acts as the primary pacemaker
for the alpha rhythm — it receives collateral inputs from thalamocortical and corticothalamic fibers and
generates rhythmic burst-firing at 8–13 Hz through GABAergic inhibitory projections to other thalamic
nuclei; this rhythmic inhibition synchronizes thalamocortical relay neurons, producing the scalp-
recorded alpha rhythm that is most prominent over the occipital regions during relaxed wakefulness
with eyes closed. This aligns with the ABRET standard that a technologist should be able to identify
common EEG patterns and understand their physiological generators.
Q3: A full-term newborn EEG shows predominantly delta activity with some theta, absent posterior
dominant rhythm, and trace alternant during quiet sleep. Which statement about neonatal EEG
maturation is most accurate?
A. This pattern is abnormal and indicates severe encephalopathy.
B. This pattern is consistent with normal EEG maturation for a full-term infant, with gradual emergence
of faster frequencies over the first few months of life.
C. This pattern indicates premature birth at approximately 32 weeks gestation.
D. This pattern suggests hypoxic-ischemic injury.
B. This pattern is consistent with normal EEG maturation for a full-term infant, with gradual
emergence of faster frequencies over the first few months of life. [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the neonatal EEG undergoes predictable maturational
changes — at term, the EEG is dominated by delta and theta activity, lacks a well-defined posterior
dominant rhythm, and shows trace alternant (periodic bursts of mixed frequencies alternating with
relative quiescence) during quiet sleep; the posterior dominant rhythm emerges around 3–4 months of
age, and faster frequencies develop progressively through infancy and childhood. Remember that when
performing pediatric EEG, knowledge of age-appropriate patterns is essential to avoid misinterpreting
normal immaturity as abnormality.
,Q4: The primary generator of scalp-recorded EEG activity is best described as:
A. Action potentials traveling along myelinated axons in the white matter.
B. Synchronous postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs and IPSPs) in the dendrites of cortical pyramidal neurons
arranged perpendicular to the cortical surface.
C. Synaptic transmission at the neuromuscular junction.
D. Action potentials in cranial nerves.
B. Synchronous postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs and IPSPs) in the dendrites of cortical pyramidal
neurons arranged perpendicular to the cortical surface. [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because scalp EEG records the summation of synchronized
postsynaptic potentials in cortical pyramidal neurons — these neurons are oriented perpendicular to the
cortical surface, and their dendritic fields generate dipole electrical fields that are detectable at the scalp
when large populations fire synchronously; action potentials are too brief and asynchronous to
contribute significantly to scalp EEG, which is why EEG reflects synaptic activity rather than neuronal
firing itself. This aligns with the ABRET standard that a technologist should be able to identify common
EEG patterns and understand their physiological generators.
Q5: During REM sleep, which physiological change occurs that distinguishes it from NREM sleep?
A. Decreased cerebral blood flow and metabolic rate.
B. Synchronized slow-wave activity in the frontal regions.
C. Desynchronized low-voltage mixed-frequency EEG resembling wakefulness, with muscle atonia and
rapid eye movements.
D. Presence of sleep spindles and K-complexes.
C. Desynchronized low-voltage mixed-frequency EEG resembling wakefulness, with muscle atonia and
rapid eye movements. [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because REM sleep is characterized by a unique constellation of
features — the EEG shows desynchronized low-voltage mixed-frequency activity that resembles
wakefulness (hence "paradoxical sleep"), there is complete muscle atonia (mediated by pontine-
geniculate-occipital pathways) to prevent acting out dreams, and bursts of rapid eye movements occur;
this contrasts with NREM sleep, which shows synchronized slow waves, sleep spindles, and K-complexes.
, Remember that when performing sleep-deprived EEGs or polysomnography, recognizing sleep stages is
essential for accurate interpretation.
Q6: A patient has a lesion in the left occipital lobe. Which visual field deficit would be expected?
A. Right homonymous hemianopia
B. Left homonymous hemianopia
C. Bitemporal hemianopia
D. Central scotoma
A. Right homonymous hemianopia [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the visual pathway is organized such that the left occipital
cortex processes information from the right visual field of both eyes — lesions posterior to the optic
chiasm (in the optic tract, lateral geniculate body, optic radiations, or occipital cortex) cause
contralateral homonymous hemianopia; a left occipital lesion therefore causes right homonymous
hemianopia, while optic chiasm lesions cause bitemporal hemianopia. This aligns with the ABRET
standard that a technologist should be able to identify common EEG patterns and understand their
physiological generators.
Q7: The reticular activating system (RAS) is located primarily in which brainstem region?
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Pons and midbrain
C. Cerebellum
D. Hypothalamus
B. Pons and midbrain [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the reticular activating system is a diffuse network of
neurons located in the core of the brainstem, extending from the upper pons through the midbrain to
the diencephalon — it receives collaterals from all sensory modalities and projects widely to the
thalamus and cerebral cortex, maintaining wakefulness and arousal; lesions of the RAS cause coma,
while overstimulation (as in anxiety or certain drug effects) produces heightened arousal and
