AMEDD DCC EXAM 2026/2027
200 Verified Questions with Correct Answers & Rationales
Army Medical Department Direct Commissioning Course — Comprehensive Study & Practice
Examination
Section 1: Brief Introduction
The AMEDD Direct Commissioning Course (DCC) examination assesses newly
commissioned Army Medical Department officers on the knowledge required to function as
military medical leaders. Content spans military medical ethics and law (Geneva
Conventions, LOAC, UCMJ), Tactical Combat Casualty Care and evacuation, medical
readiness and administration, leadership and Army culture, force health protection, CBRN
defense, medical logistics, and behavioral health. Each question below is immediately
followed by its correct answer (bold, cyan) and a doctrine-based rationale.
Section 2: The Complete Exam
1. Under the First Geneva Convention, captured military medical personnel are classified
as:
A. Prisoners of war with full combatant status
B. Retained personnel who may be held only as long as required to care for
prisoners of war
C. Civilian internees
D. Unlawful combatants
Rationale: Geneva Convention I, Article 28, designates medical personnel who fall into enemy
hands as 'retained personnel,' not prisoners of war. They may be retained only to the extent
the health of POWs requires their services and must otherwise be returned to their own forces.
2. Under the Law of Armed Conflict, a military medical officer may carry a weapon for
which purpose?
A. Offensive operations in support of the maneuver commander
B. Self-defense and defense of the wounded and sick in their charge
C. Guarding enemy prisoners of war at a collection point
D. Any purpose, since medical personnel have full combatant privileges
Rationale: Geneva Convention I permits medical personnel to be armed with light individual
weapons for their own defense and that of the wounded and sick in their charge without
losing protected status. Using weapons offensively, or performing duties harmful to the
enemy, forfeits that protection.
,3. Which action would cause a medical treatment facility to LOSE its protected status under
the Geneva Conventions?
A. Displaying the red cross emblem
B. Treating enemy wounded alongside friendly casualties
C. Using the facility to store ammunition and stage combat operations
D. Having armed guards for defense of patients
Rationale: Medical facilities are protected under Geneva Convention I unless they are used to
commit acts harmful to the enemy, such as storing munitions or sheltering able-bodied
combatants for military operations. Defensive arms and treating enemy wounded do not
forfeit protection.
4. Geneva Convention I, Article 12, requires that priority of medical treatment among the
wounded and sick be determined only by:
A. Rank and seniority
B. Nationality of the casualty
C. Urgent medical reasons
D. Order of arrival at the aid station
Rationale: Under GC I, Article 12, the wounded and sick must be respected and protected, and
only urgent medical reasons authorize priority in the order of treatment. Sorting by rank,
nationality, or friend-versus-foe status violates the Law of Armed Conflict and military
medical ethics.
5. An enemy prisoner of war refuses a medically indicated surgical procedure. Under the
Geneva Conventions and U.S. policy, the military physician should:
A. Perform the surgery anyway because the patient is a detainee
B. Respect the refusal of a competent patient and document it, continuing other
appropriate care
C. Ask the guard force to authorize the surgery
D. Withhold all further care until the patient consents
Rationale: Detainees retain the right of a competent patient to refuse treatment, consistent
with the Geneva Conventions, DoD detainee healthcare policy (DoDI 2310.08), and medical
ethics. Forced treatment of a competent detainee or punitive withdrawal of other care are
both prohibited.
6. The principle of the Law of Armed Conflict that prohibits attacks expected to cause
civilian harm excessive to the concrete military advantage anticipated is:
A. Military necessity
B. Distinction
C. Proportionality
, D. Chivalry
Rationale: Proportionality prohibits attacks in which expected incidental civilian harm
would be excessive in relation to the concrete and direct military advantage anticipated.
Distinction, by contrast, requires separating combatants from civilians and military objectives
from civilian objects.
7. Misuse of the red cross emblem to shield a legitimate military objective is best described
as:
A. A lawful ruse of war
B. Perfidy, a violation of the Law of Armed Conflict
C. Camouflage
D. A permissible deception measure
Rationale: Feigning protected status—such as misusing the red cross emblem to protect
combat forces or equipment—constitutes perfidy and is prohibited by the Law of Armed
Conflict. Lawful ruses (e.g., decoys, feints) do not involve false claims to protected status.
8. A medical officer receives an order from a superior to deny care to wounded enemy
combatants. The officer should:
A. Obey the order because it came from the chain of command
B. Refuse to obey, because it is a manifestly unlawful order that violates the
Geneva Conventions
C. Obey but file a complaint later
D. Delay care until a lawyer arrives
Rationale: Members of the armed forces must obey lawful orders, but an order to deny care
to wounded enemy combatants violates GC I, Article 12, and is manifestly unlawful. Following
a manifestly unlawful order is not a defense to criminal liability under the UCMJ or
international law.
9. Which article of the Uniform Code of Military Justice provides commanders the option of
nonjudicial punishment for minor offenses?
A. Article 15
B. Article 31
C. Article 92
D. Article 134
Rationale: Article 15, UCMJ, authorizes commanders to impose nonjudicial punishment for
minor offenses without a court-martial. Article 31 covers rights against self-incrimination,
Article 92 covers failure to obey orders, and Article 134 is the general article.
, 10. Article 31, UCMJ, protects service members by:
A. Guaranteeing free legal representation in civil suits
B. Requiring that suspects be informed of the nature of the accusation and their
right against self-incrimination before questioning
C. Prohibiting deployment of soldiers under investigation
D. Granting immunity for testimony before Congress
Rationale: Article 31(b), UCMJ, requires that before interrogation a suspect be informed of
the nature of the accusation, the right to remain silent, and that statements may be used as
evidence. It is broader than civilian Miranda protections because it applies to any questioning
by persons subject to the UCMJ acting in an official capacity.
11. An officer who is absent from their unit without authority for three days has violated
which UCMJ article?
A. Article 86 (Absence Without Leave)
B. Article 88 (Contempt Toward Officials)
C. Article 120 (Sexual Assault)
D. Article 133 (Conduct Unbecoming)
Rationale: Article 86, UCMJ, punishes failure to go to one's appointed place of duty and
absence without leave. Articles 88, 120, and 133 address contempt toward officials, sexual
offenses, and conduct unbecoming an officer, respectively.
12. Violation of a lawful general regulation, such as a medical command's controlled
substance handling policy, is chargeable under:
A. Article 92, UCMJ
B. Article 15, UCMJ
C. Article 2, UCMJ
D. Article 138, UCMJ
Rationale: Article 92, UCMJ, criminalizes violation of or failure to obey a lawful general order
or regulation and dereliction of duty. Article 15 is a punishment procedure, Article 2 defines
persons subject to the code, and Article 138 provides complaint procedures against
commanders.
13. Which court-martial can adjudge the most severe punishments, including dishonorable
discharge and confinement beyond one year?
A. Summary court-martial
B. Special court-martial
C. General court-martial
D. Article 15 proceeding
200 Verified Questions with Correct Answers & Rationales
Army Medical Department Direct Commissioning Course — Comprehensive Study & Practice
Examination
Section 1: Brief Introduction
The AMEDD Direct Commissioning Course (DCC) examination assesses newly
commissioned Army Medical Department officers on the knowledge required to function as
military medical leaders. Content spans military medical ethics and law (Geneva
Conventions, LOAC, UCMJ), Tactical Combat Casualty Care and evacuation, medical
readiness and administration, leadership and Army culture, force health protection, CBRN
defense, medical logistics, and behavioral health. Each question below is immediately
followed by its correct answer (bold, cyan) and a doctrine-based rationale.
Section 2: The Complete Exam
1. Under the First Geneva Convention, captured military medical personnel are classified
as:
A. Prisoners of war with full combatant status
B. Retained personnel who may be held only as long as required to care for
prisoners of war
C. Civilian internees
D. Unlawful combatants
Rationale: Geneva Convention I, Article 28, designates medical personnel who fall into enemy
hands as 'retained personnel,' not prisoners of war. They may be retained only to the extent
the health of POWs requires their services and must otherwise be returned to their own forces.
2. Under the Law of Armed Conflict, a military medical officer may carry a weapon for
which purpose?
A. Offensive operations in support of the maneuver commander
B. Self-defense and defense of the wounded and sick in their charge
C. Guarding enemy prisoners of war at a collection point
D. Any purpose, since medical personnel have full combatant privileges
Rationale: Geneva Convention I permits medical personnel to be armed with light individual
weapons for their own defense and that of the wounded and sick in their charge without
losing protected status. Using weapons offensively, or performing duties harmful to the
enemy, forfeits that protection.
,3. Which action would cause a medical treatment facility to LOSE its protected status under
the Geneva Conventions?
A. Displaying the red cross emblem
B. Treating enemy wounded alongside friendly casualties
C. Using the facility to store ammunition and stage combat operations
D. Having armed guards for defense of patients
Rationale: Medical facilities are protected under Geneva Convention I unless they are used to
commit acts harmful to the enemy, such as storing munitions or sheltering able-bodied
combatants for military operations. Defensive arms and treating enemy wounded do not
forfeit protection.
4. Geneva Convention I, Article 12, requires that priority of medical treatment among the
wounded and sick be determined only by:
A. Rank and seniority
B. Nationality of the casualty
C. Urgent medical reasons
D. Order of arrival at the aid station
Rationale: Under GC I, Article 12, the wounded and sick must be respected and protected, and
only urgent medical reasons authorize priority in the order of treatment. Sorting by rank,
nationality, or friend-versus-foe status violates the Law of Armed Conflict and military
medical ethics.
5. An enemy prisoner of war refuses a medically indicated surgical procedure. Under the
Geneva Conventions and U.S. policy, the military physician should:
A. Perform the surgery anyway because the patient is a detainee
B. Respect the refusal of a competent patient and document it, continuing other
appropriate care
C. Ask the guard force to authorize the surgery
D. Withhold all further care until the patient consents
Rationale: Detainees retain the right of a competent patient to refuse treatment, consistent
with the Geneva Conventions, DoD detainee healthcare policy (DoDI 2310.08), and medical
ethics. Forced treatment of a competent detainee or punitive withdrawal of other care are
both prohibited.
6. The principle of the Law of Armed Conflict that prohibits attacks expected to cause
civilian harm excessive to the concrete military advantage anticipated is:
A. Military necessity
B. Distinction
C. Proportionality
, D. Chivalry
Rationale: Proportionality prohibits attacks in which expected incidental civilian harm
would be excessive in relation to the concrete and direct military advantage anticipated.
Distinction, by contrast, requires separating combatants from civilians and military objectives
from civilian objects.
7. Misuse of the red cross emblem to shield a legitimate military objective is best described
as:
A. A lawful ruse of war
B. Perfidy, a violation of the Law of Armed Conflict
C. Camouflage
D. A permissible deception measure
Rationale: Feigning protected status—such as misusing the red cross emblem to protect
combat forces or equipment—constitutes perfidy and is prohibited by the Law of Armed
Conflict. Lawful ruses (e.g., decoys, feints) do not involve false claims to protected status.
8. A medical officer receives an order from a superior to deny care to wounded enemy
combatants. The officer should:
A. Obey the order because it came from the chain of command
B. Refuse to obey, because it is a manifestly unlawful order that violates the
Geneva Conventions
C. Obey but file a complaint later
D. Delay care until a lawyer arrives
Rationale: Members of the armed forces must obey lawful orders, but an order to deny care
to wounded enemy combatants violates GC I, Article 12, and is manifestly unlawful. Following
a manifestly unlawful order is not a defense to criminal liability under the UCMJ or
international law.
9. Which article of the Uniform Code of Military Justice provides commanders the option of
nonjudicial punishment for minor offenses?
A. Article 15
B. Article 31
C. Article 92
D. Article 134
Rationale: Article 15, UCMJ, authorizes commanders to impose nonjudicial punishment for
minor offenses without a court-martial. Article 31 covers rights against self-incrimination,
Article 92 covers failure to obey orders, and Article 134 is the general article.
, 10. Article 31, UCMJ, protects service members by:
A. Guaranteeing free legal representation in civil suits
B. Requiring that suspects be informed of the nature of the accusation and their
right against self-incrimination before questioning
C. Prohibiting deployment of soldiers under investigation
D. Granting immunity for testimony before Congress
Rationale: Article 31(b), UCMJ, requires that before interrogation a suspect be informed of
the nature of the accusation, the right to remain silent, and that statements may be used as
evidence. It is broader than civilian Miranda protections because it applies to any questioning
by persons subject to the UCMJ acting in an official capacity.
11. An officer who is absent from their unit without authority for three days has violated
which UCMJ article?
A. Article 86 (Absence Without Leave)
B. Article 88 (Contempt Toward Officials)
C. Article 120 (Sexual Assault)
D. Article 133 (Conduct Unbecoming)
Rationale: Article 86, UCMJ, punishes failure to go to one's appointed place of duty and
absence without leave. Articles 88, 120, and 133 address contempt toward officials, sexual
offenses, and conduct unbecoming an officer, respectively.
12. Violation of a lawful general regulation, such as a medical command's controlled
substance handling policy, is chargeable under:
A. Article 92, UCMJ
B. Article 15, UCMJ
C. Article 2, UCMJ
D. Article 138, UCMJ
Rationale: Article 92, UCMJ, criminalizes violation of or failure to obey a lawful general order
or regulation and dereliction of duty. Article 15 is a punishment procedure, Article 2 defines
persons subject to the code, and Article 138 provides complaint procedures against
commanders.
13. Which court-martial can adjudge the most severe punishments, including dishonorable
discharge and confinement beyond one year?
A. Summary court-martial
B. Special court-martial
C. General court-martial
D. Article 15 proceeding
